leibowde84
Veteran Member
The law of the penteteuch?That interpretation was the oral law.
Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!
The law of the penteteuch?That interpretation was the oral law.
So, why did Jesus command that his followers "to practice and obey whatever the [Pharisees] told them"? And, didn't the change in the Sabbath occur after Jesus' death? When did Jesus state that this change was OK?
That was James, not Jesus. and that is my point. It seems that this notion only came after Jesus death.James advised the following:
Acts 15:19 Therefore my judgment is that we should not trouble those of the Gentiles who turn to God, 20 but should write to them to abstain from the things polluted by idols, and from sexual immorality, and from what has been strangled, and from blood.
an interesting list -- what does he mean by "strangling" and "blood"? Are those about foods or about to being violent to peopleJames advised the following:
Acts 15:19 Therefore my judgment is that we should not trouble those of the Gentiles who turn to God, 20 but should write to them to abstain from the things polluted by idols, and from sexual immorality, and from what has been strangled, and from blood.
Apparently not. I was shown Acts 11 this morning, where Cephas received a vision at Joppa, telling him that in future He and Christians could eat Gentile foods.According to this, Christians are still bound to Jewish law though, right?
Right, but you agree that none of this is attributed to what Jesus wanted or did?Apparently not. I was shown Acts 11 this morning, where Cephas received a vision at Joppa, telling him that in future He and Christians could eat Gentile foods.
Paul (no doubt) received all kinds of junk in visions, thus hacking at Jesus's words further.
Did Jesus ever claim this? If so, please provide the quote from Jesus. Beyond that, it is merely putting word in Jesus' mouth, isn't it?Jesus came as the Messiah under the law of Moses. If the Jews had accepted him he would have ruled under the law of Moses
When he was rejected as God knew he would be, he died on the cross as the sacrifice for sin and with his resurrection the covenant of the law was replace by the new covenant in his blood leaving the Jews who rejected him trying to continue in the law of Moses which God no longer accepts for salvation
The gospels of Mathew Mark and Luke are Jesus presenting himself to Israel as the Messiah under the law of Moses.
The Gospel of John is presentig Jesus as Author of the New Covenat
...absolutely!Right, but you agree that none of this is attributed to what Jesus wanted or did?
an interesting list -- what does he mean by "strangling" and "blood"? Are those about foods or about to being violent to people
Yes, but it also begs the question why the apostles gradually walked away from the Law if Jesus didn't somehow create a paradigm whereas they would do that.Alright. So, at the very least, it is contradictory, right?
Yes, but it also begs the question why the apostles gradually walked away from the Law if Jesus didn't somehow create a paradigm whereas they would do that.
I'm strapped for time now, but if this thread continues, I'll post my theory as to what I think happened. I know this will keep you up tonight in anxious anticipation.
OK, I gotta minute, so let me put it out in brief.It may be interesting to discover if your theory holds similarities to my own
With this approach, the letter of the Law is trumped by the issues of compassion and justice to the point whereas that they may have believed that as long as you did those two, you've essentially done them all.
Gotta go-- but are we on the same page?
Did Jesus ever claim this? If so, please provide the quote from Jesus. Beyond that, it is merely putting word in Jesus' mouth, isn't it?
Jesus came as the Messiah under the law of Moses. If the Jews had accepted him he would have ruled under the law of Mosesclaim what
So, why did Jesus command that his followers "to practice and obey whatever the [Pharisees] told them"? And, didn't the change in the Sabbath occur after Jesus' death? When did Jesus state that this change was OK?
So, why did Jesus command that his followers "practice and obey whatever the [Pharisees] told them"? That they were the authority on the Law of Moses?The Pharisees taught from Moses but they didn't live it from a love motivation. The Sabbath was never changed by Jesus of the Apostles. God said a system would rise up that had a man at it's head that would change God's times and Law but not with His approval. The Sabbath from the seventh day to the first day was one of those changes. If you want to know more about this watch these.
In other words, God is a liarJesus came as the Messiah under the law of Moses. If the Jews had accepted him he would have ruled under the law of Moses
When he was rejected as God knew he would be, he died on the cross as the sacrifice for sin and with his resurrection the covenant of the law was replace by the new covenant in his blood leaving the Jews who rejected him trying to continue in the law of Moses which God no longer accepts for salvation
The gospels of Mathew Mark and Luke are Jesus presenting himself to Israel as the Messiah under the law of Moses.
The Gospel of John is presentig Jesus as Author of the New Covenat
So, why did Jesus command that his followers "practice and obey whatever the [Pharisees] told them"? That they were the authority on the Law of Moses?