I know you've directed these questions to Murph, so I hope you dont mind if i reply to your legitimate concerns.
I wonder why a slave who voluntarily remains a slave is to be marked so everyone knows the difference? Exodus 21:6
I mean if all slaves were, as you claim, merely "indentured servants"?
The sign of the mark on the ear was so that people would know that the slave had chosen to remain with the master. It gave the slave the recognition that he was one set free and all would know that that slave was a slave by choice and not one who was paying off a debt or was sold. It basically raised his/her status which was a loving provision rather then anything derogatory.
You seem to be claiming that all slaves were likened to your "indentured servant" claim, however as pointed out to you, the wives and children of your "indentured servants" were not to be turned loose with the "indentured servant" if the Master provided them.[FONT=trebuchet ms,arial,helvetica]Exodus 21:1-4[/FONT]
Thats not quite the full story there. Vs 3-4 states:
3 If he should come in by himself, by himself he will go out. If he is the owner of a wife, then his wife must go out with him. 4 If his master should give him a wife and she does bear him sons or daughters, the wife and her children will become her master’s and he will go out by himself"
Notice that if the slave came in 'with a wife' then he could take her and his children with him. But in some cases a slave was given a wife by the master. This could have been another slave that the master owned or it could have even been one of his own family members. If that was the case then the slave could not take that wife or children with him because they belong to the masters household.
But in such cases, the slave had the right to choose to stay with the master and keep the wife that was given to him.
Again its an example of how God considers the rights of all people...those in a higher position and those in a lower position.
You also ignore the fact that if the slaves come from the surrounding nations that your "indentured servant" claim completely falls through.
I mean, you can even leave slaves to you children as inherited property.[FONT=trebuchet ms,arial,helvetica]Leviticus 25:44-46[/FONT]
While this is true that the status of the Hebrew slave differed from that foreign slave, it does not mean that those foreign slaves had no rights. They came under the same rules regarding the way an owner was to treat them as a hebrew slave (the only exception being that they were not set free after 7 years) The reason being was that other nations practiced slavery according to their own standards and they made no provision for the freedom of slaves. The Isrealites were different in that regard because they were practicing slavery which was regulated by a system of fairness according to Gods requirements. It only applied to the Israelite slaves because they were Abrahams children and Gods people...the people he was leading...the other nations were not included in that privileged position at that time.
another example is that foreign slaves were actually in a better position then free foreigners with regards to certain privileges.
For instance, if a priest purchased a foreign slave, that slave could partake in eating the holy food of the temple whereas a free foreigner could never partake of such foods....nor could a free hebrew.
Leviticus 22:10
“‘And no stranger at all may eat anything holy. No settler with a priest nor a hired laborer may eat anything holy. 11 But in case a priest should purchase a soul (slave), as a purchase with his money, he as such may share in eating it. "