The universe must be eternal, because "eternal" can only be defined in terms of the universe. Remember, time is part of and depends upon the universe. To say the universe is not eternal is somewhat akin to saying that the North Pole can't be on Earth.
Your ratonaization for the eternity of the universe is fallatious. The universe is made out of matter, and matter cannot be eternal. And time does not depend upon the universe per se but upon motion. The parts of the universe must move so that time be an accident of.
And so are you.
I'm going to interrupt you here to point out that conservation of mass-energy is proven to the point that to doubt it entails doubting logical identity. To say that mass or energy is destroyed or created is implicitly saying that the universe is not consistent, which is the most absurd of all impossibilities.
Who said anything about energy? I am talking about matter. Energy is an accident of matter. The death of matter or its transformation is a sysnonym of each other. Energy is preserved in the new form that matter takes but in a different perspective.
Stars do not die. They are merely redistributed. A "star" is just a collection of gas. The gas continues on after the star falls apart.
In that case, Astrophysicists are liars, because they do speak of death of stars. Do you still remember what is a Supernova? It is a rare celestial phenomenon involving the explosion of most of the material in a star, resulting in a extremely bright short-lived object that tha emits a vast amount of energy. That's what they call the death of a star. If stars did not die, they would not use the word "death of stars." Oh! but you do mention above that stars falling apart. Another synonym for death. Thank you. The gas, which had been an accident of the star that "fell apart" aggregates to another star or to the remains of the dead one.
Back this up. Somehow. Anyhow. But show, somehow, that this statement is correct and that the opposite is wrong.
I am not going to show you in a spiritual manner because you won't get it. But that the universe shows the glory of its Creator has been written in the bestseller ever in the History of the world, and for about 4000 years already. And for the opposite view, all you have as evidence are theories that are born and die before they mature into facts from a generation into another.
He certainly could. It probably never occured to him, but if the idea were explained to him, he could have almost certainly comprehended it.
What makes you think that the idea was not explained to him, and even more than several times? During the reign of Akhenaten, the Levites were dispensed from slavery work so that they could get involved in the priestly studies of their holy books. It is almost a matter of fact that Akhenaten woul get lessons about Jewish Monotheism. He just didn't have what it takes to be spiritual in the Patriarchal concept of an Unseen and Incorporeal God. Besides, where do you think he plagiarized the monotheistic concept of one only God if not from the Priests and Levites?
I am absolutely convinced there is no such thing as "spirituality" in any form, but that conviction relies on an assumption. Do you feel you could prove my assumption wrong?
If your conviction relies on the fact that there is no such a thing as "spirituality" is absolute, what can I say which will prove your assumption wrong? Those who desire to be spiritual in truth, and not brutes, having only the appearance and shape of man, must constantly endeavour to reduce the wants of the body, such as eating, sex, drinking, anger, and ill vices originating in lust and passion. Then, in a meditational communication with the One Who is a Spirit and Incorporeal, the exercise must be in a spiritual manner, almost telepatically. With such a disposition, the Lord reveals Himself to one by way of a dream or vision, which is the lucide phase of the dream. The other day I went to sleep worried about how could a prove to a questioner about the absolutely unity of God, when I was taken by a spiritual dream, according to Numbers 12:6. In the lucid phase of that dream, the following explanation came to my mind:
Absolute Unity of God
Isaiah says that, absolutely, God cannot be compared with anyone or anything, as we read
Isaiah 46:5. "To whom will ye liken Me, and make Me equal to , or compare Me with, that we may be alike?" Therefore, more than one God would have been unable to produce the world; one would have impeded the work of the other, unless this could be avoided by a suitable division of labour. More than one Divine Being would have one element in common, and would differ in another; each would thus consist of two elements, and would not be God. More than one God are moved to action by will; the will, without a substratum, could not act simultaneously in more than one being. Therefore, the existence of one God is proved; the existence of more than one God cannot be proved. One could suggest that it would be possible; but since as possibility is inapplicable to God, there does not exist more than one God. So, the possibilitly of ascertaining the existence of God is here confounded with potentiality of existence.
Again, if one God suffices, a second or third God would be supperfluous; if one God is not sufficient, he is not perfect, and cannot be a deity. Now, besides being God absolutely One, He is incorporeal. If God were corporeal, He would consist of atoms, and would not be one; or he would be comparable to other beings; but a comparison implies the existence of similar and of dissimilar elements, and God would thus not be One. A corporeal God would be finite, and an external power would be required to define those limits.
The uncertainty principle is not hypothetical. It is a fact. Indeed, it is a fact more fundamental than any macroscopic phenomenon you are familiar with.
Anything hypothetical is of the category of a theory. And worse than a not-proved theory, it can be refuted and killed right there and then for being considered only conventionally.