Proper context has everything to do with using the verse(s) in harmony with the surrounding text(s).
It is not useless because of the length of time.
One can even use an entire book as the context... where the previous chapter(s) help one to understand a verse, or a number of verses.
For example, Isaiah 14:8-20...
We go all the way back to Chapter 13 of Isaiah, to get a correct understanding, and application of the verses.
That one God is the spirit dwelling in the Messiah?
I don't understand that? That does not scripturally answer the question, and I can make any connection of it with the question.
Can you give an answer that doesn't require me trying to get in your mind, but rather an answer I can look in the Bible, and understand?
Recall that you are making the argument that there is only one God - meaning (if I understand you correctly) that Jesus is God, and the father is God, and must be the same, because they can't be two Gods.
Yet the scriptures say that the father is Jesus' God.
Jesus himself said that He also said, the father is the only true God.
He also said many other things like this.
For just as the Father has life in himself, so he has granted also to the Son to have life in himself. And he has given him authority to do judging, because he is the Son of man.
I cannot do a single thing of my own initiative. Just as I hear, I judge, and my judgment is righteous because I seek, not my own will, but the will of him who sent me. (John 5:26-30)
So my question is, if Jesus is the one and only true God, how could he claim that the father is his God, the one and only true God?
You do understand what it means to have a God, don't you?
Telling me the above, is no help to your argument.
God's spirit also dwells in his followers. It does not make them God.
Jesus even prayed that they be in them - the father and son.
John 17:21
That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me.
This was answered. Remember?