And just when you begin to think that the rerun could not possibly be sillier than its vapid predecessor
What are you babbling about?
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And just when you begin to think that the rerun could not possibly be sillier than its vapid predecessor
Speculation based on unproven idea in order to prove another idea. This begging the question in which you assume an unproven premise is true in order to prove a conclusion is true.
Argument from incredibility. Just because something does not seem possible to you is not grounds to dismiss it. There are always people who take this stance. Flight was impossible now it is possible. Space-flight was impossible now it is. Etc.
God answers require far more explanations. How does God violate physics?
What method is used? Saying God can just do it is the equivalent to say "because"
Ad populum fallacy. Numbers and/or size do not prove an idea is true.
His followers and those after did the work. Jesus rambled a few words and died. If his followers didn't spread what he said he would just be another nobody in the mass of nobodies in history.
Ad populum fallacy again. They could be all wrong.
None of the Gospel were written by their name sakes. This is established in the earliest Gospel of Mark since it uses High-Greek poetry.
Only 60% or so of Paul's letters were written by him.
And just when you begin to think that the rerun could not possibly be sillier than its vapid predecessor
If you did, I must've missed it.
That's a fable that Christians made up long after it supposedly happened.
Constantine was a thug and a tyrant. May his name be damned.
Tacitus was a Christian? Oh, I didn't know that.
One part of Jospehus is indeed widely accepted to be a later interpolation.
There are two passages in Josephus which refer to Jesus. The vast majority of scholars believe that both were , in some form, original to Josephus. The vast majority also believe that the longer passage has been altered by Christian scribes. An even greater majority believes the shorter reference to be unaltered and original.
I quoted the relevant Greek in Josephus. Can you analyze it (or any Greek in Josephus)?...Can you name the extant Josephus manuscripts?
Some of that prophecy ('commentary'?)(really?), is not even used by Judaism.
Yeshua is the Jewish Messiah, but salvation is for all who follow Him, the reason OT sources are used is because that is part of the Messiah narrative, you don't have to believe any of it however it is not 'plaegerism'.
The Church's view of history is engrained in our psyches and we often take this for granted.
Candida Moss
the Christians hadnt fully emerged from Judaism as their own widely known religious group until long after Nero.
There's a number of reasons why the authenticity of that passage may be doubted: Is Tacitus Reference an Interpolation?
a blogger like that is not credible for anything, and it goes against, those with credibility, education and knowledge on the topic.
Yada yada yada. You're so predictable, like a robot. If I start using my ignore list again, you'll be one of the first back on it. For now, I'll just continue rolling my eyes and laughing at you.
You have never taken a single class on this topic have you?
What two words?! PUT UP OR SHUT UP.
NOTE: Apparently, anytime anyone else wants, too. I guess I should feel jealous to watch Bunyip's hunger for abuse get satisfied while dad here is away.
Dude you're the one who started the thread.
Something you sound like your ignorant of.
many topic scholars debate each other and have different views. Some views there is a consensus on, some 50/50 and some 90/10 and some 99/1
The difference is the level of respect of the education and knowledge held while having opposing views.
Outhouse, you're not a scholar.
Correct. And why would I need to make a choice, when you are presenting a false dichotomy anyway?