TagliatelliMonster
Veteran Member
There were different dialects of Spanish that existed in between modern Latin and Spanish.
Latin = roman language.
Latin over time evolved in spanish, french, italian and portugese.
Spanish, french, italian, portugese = still roman languages.
What "change in kind"? What is being meant by "kind", if "roman languages" doesn't qualify as a "kind" of language?
There is off course a major difference between language evolution and biological evolution... And that difference is in how it reproduces. Language reproduces culturally. Let's say that a culture is the equivalent of species. Now in human society, cultures can merge with one another, or heavily influence one another.
So a language like japanese for example, might adopt english words like "computer". Such words couldn't be traced by through its own cultural history into proto-japanese and beyond, as it got "imported" from english.
In biology, such a thing can not happen. It would be like human beings "importing" the trait of feathers from birds. Biology doesn't work that way off course.
But if we ignore those "imported" words in languages that got in "horizontally" from peer languages instead of "vertical development" from ancestral languages, then language development forms a perfect parallell to how species change over time, over generations, through population mechanics.
But hey, don't let the truth of the matter get in your way.
And whatever you do, do NOT answer the question of how "roman language" doesn't qualify as a "kind" of language, as it will most certainly expose the deep dishonesty of the slippery slope that is the word "kind" in creationist propaganda.
Gotta protect them dogmatic beliefs, after all...
The slow and gradual changes within languages imply eventual changes of kinds.
No.