Genesis 1:26, 'stresses' it? God says, "Let us"..... That's stressing it? Come on. If anything, it shows distinction. God was talking to somebody else, not Himself.
Not when teh noun is singular. Of courwse he was taling to someone else the 2 that is included n the plural ending, but they are part of the singular noun.
You've never said to a friend, "Let us go somewhere"?
Irrelevant.
Regarding John 1:1 (and vs. 2).....
Revised Standard reads: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God.” (KJ, Douay, JB, NAB use similar wording.)
What does "was God " tell us?
However, The Bible—An American Translation (1935), by J. M. Powis Smith and Edgar J. Goodspeed reads: “the Word was divine”; Moffat, “the Logos was divine”; The New Testament in an Improved Version (1808), published in London, “the word was a god.” In his German translation Ludwig Thimme expresses it in this way: “God of a sort the Word was.”
All the good translation today say "was God." Don't try to make your point with faulty translations.
Now, look at the context. Which translation of John 1:1-2 agrees with it? John 1:18 says: “No one has ever seen God.” John 1:14 clearly says that “the Word became flesh and dwelt among us . . . we have beheld his glory.” Also, vss.1 &2 say that in the beginning he was “with God.” Can one be with someone and at the same time be that person? At John 17:3, Jesus addresses the Father as “the only true God”; so, Jesus as “a god” merely reflects his Father’s divine qualities.—Hebrews 1:3.
Jesus WAS GOD. refute that.
Is the rendering “a god” consistent with the rules of Greek grammar? Some reference books argue strongly that the Greek text must be translated, “The Word was God.” But not all agree. In his article “Qualitative Anarthrous Predicate Nouns: Mark 15:39 and John 1:1,” Philip B. Harner said that such clauses as the one in John 1:1, “with an anarthrous predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning. They indicate that the logos has the nature of theos.” He suggests: “Perhaps the clause could be translated, ‘the Word had the same nature as God.’” (Journal of Biblical Literature, 1973, pp. 85, 87)
Anarthrous means teh noun(God) lacks the article
Thus, in this text, the fact that the word the·osʹ in its second occurrence is without the definite article (ho) and is placed before the verb in the sentence in Greek is significant.
The only thing significant is the meaning of anarthrous.
Interestingly, translators that insist on rendering John 1:1, “The Word was God,” do not hesitate to use the indefinite article (a, an) in their rendering of other passages where a singular anarthrous predicate noun occurs before the verb. Thus at John 6:70, The Jerusalem Bible and King James both refer to Judas Iscariot as “a devil,” and at John 9:17 they describe Jesus as “a prophet.”
That is because the nouns are not anarthrous.
Noted scholar & highly respected Roman Catholic priest John J. McKenzie, S.J., in his Dictionary of the Bible, says: “Jn 1:1 should rigorously be translated ‘the word was with the God [= the Father], and the word was a divine being.’”—(Brackets are his. Published with nihil obstat and imprimatur.) (New York, 1965), p. 317. (Bold type is mine.)
First of all, ad truly diving being would be a God. Second the scholars who do Bible translation are far better scholars than priest.
Referring to the Word (who became Jesus Christ) as “a god” is consistent with the use of that term in the rest of the Scriptures. For example, at Psalms 82:1-6 human judges in Israel were referred to as “gods” (Hebrew, ’elo·himʹ; Greek, the·oiʹ, at John 10:34) because they were representatives of Yahweh and were to speak his law.
Not if the noun is anarthous as you have stated. It is obvious that angels are not the subjec of Genesis 1:26. They have no creative ability., and God spoke the universe and all that is in it. He did not need angels.