Not necessarily.
Again, not necessarily. Logic doesn't necessarily bear a direct relation to evidence, though it can help one determine what certain types of evidence might mean. Evidence itself can make a solution seem more likely, but it cannot make it "logical" or "illogical". Indeed, evidence does not speak to logic at all. A clever murderer who has left no evidence behind has still committed murder. The evidence proving geocentrism prior to Copernicus was immense, yet that theory was quite wrong. And it would have been entirely logically valid to believe either position on both those theoretical issues. Logical, but not necessarily correct, or likely.
So the rest of your proof is based on a flawed premise from the outset. You're using logical and illogical inappropriately as categories, and crediting the wrong factors for what makes a thing logically valid or invalid. Note that although you provided no evidence for any of your assumptions, the flawed premise is the reason your argument does not follow logically- the lack of evidence makes it less convincing, but not less logically valid or invalid.
And no, logic and rationality are by no means synonyms.
*In what i am about to say, when i use the term 'evidence', it means it is the absolute correct kind.
You did not understand what i said. Maybe i should edit my first post and make it more specific.
As you said, when a murderer commits a crime and leaves no evidence(as far as the people solving the case know of) and there are people trying to solve this murder and have no trace of evidence, with my logic of 'if there is no evidence, it has never happened', the murderer would be ruled out as innocent thus making my logic extremely wrong.
This is a situation where my logic has been applied wrong.
You applied my statement if you were a third person and you were given a piece of information
-is there evidence in our hands that that man is the murderer?
turns out there is none
and so the (you)third person would say the man is innocent even though in truth, he really did kill someone
The way you argued with my statement is wrong, for there is evidence that the man killed someone.
The item he used to kill the person.
My logic is applied when you know the truth and there is no hidden information.
wrong evidence, wrong information = not the truth
again, when i meant 'evidence' i meant the correct and absolute evidence.
so as i said
"if there is no evidence, it is illogical"
this means that if there absolutely is no evidence, it is (illogical)never happened
Because the bible is so long and there have been many events and many characters, there is a question i bring up.
Why is there no evidence that they have existed?
We can easily say that with many centuries and no trace of evidence at all, that there is no evidence and that is the absolute truth.
There is no evidence meaning it never happened.