It was speaking of men raping men was it not?
Leviticus is probably talking about ritual purity laws. For example, it forbids having sex with a woman during her period a few verses above the apparently anti-gay verse. Menstruation was a time of "uncleanliness" for women in that culture and she had to be separated from males during that time lest she befoul them. She had to undergo a ritual purification when her period was over. Obviously Christians have no problem disregarding that concept.
Also, it was a common view in many ancient cultures that a man who allows himself to be penetrated by another man has emasculated himself and it was seen as detestable. Notice that the verse is clearly referring to male/male anal sex. This is a form of sexism since the male was necessarily viewed as the penetrator and females necessarily viewed as the receiver. So for a male to be anally penetrated, he was seen as "lowering" himself to the position of a woman and this was a big violation of gender roles in that culture. So when you put it into its cultural context, it makes a lot of sense. For example, it explains why female homosexuality isn't mentioned at all. It's not mentioned because, in patriarchal cultures, female sexuality tends to be completely ignored except in regards to them having sex with men, since women in such cultures were basically seen as the property of their father or, when married, their husband. In their view of virginity, a female being a virgin just meant that she hasn't been vaginally penetrated by a penis yet. It was a form of social control over a woman's sexuality and most likely emerged as a reproductive strategy to assure that the husband is the father of the offspring, thus insuring the continuation of his linage, since they obviously didn't have paternity testing during that time. Matrilineal cultures don't have such restrictions and concepts of virginity.
The Christianized Roman Empire adopted this same line of thinking by sentencing males who took on the passive role in sex with another male to being to burned to death:
"In the year 342, the Christian emperors
Constantius II and
Constans declared the death penalty for a male who took on the passive role of a bride (rather than marry as equals with another man).
[8] In the year 390, the Christian emperors
Valentinian II,
Theodosius I and
Arcadius denounced males "acting the part of a woman", condemning those who were guilty of such acts to be publicly burned.
[9]"
When the Bible is talking about homosexual acts, it is mostly in reference to Pagan sex rites like temple prostitution. Romans 1 was most certainly referring to a Pagan sex rite being performed by Christians who have backslid into Paganism.
As for the other verses in the NT, those could be referring to prostitution and/or rape.
