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Is Calling Muhammad a Pedophile Islamophobic?

Was sex between grown men and 9 year old girls morally acceptable at any point in history?

  • Yes

    Votes: 8 29.6%
  • No

    Votes: 13 48.1%
  • Other (Explain)

    Votes: 6 22.2%

  • Total voters
    27

McBell

Unbound
For some reason people keep mentioning that part. Not that it's right, but being with young girls was not exactly uncommon in those days nor was slavery or being with your cousins and sisters.. Even Greek, Roman, Persian, Arabian leaders had young wives but people don't call them a pedo, but Muhammad is? That's a lack of consistency.

But every culture now and back then had it's virtues and vices. Religions today are not the same as they were back then and I think they bring that up just to think of a reason to hate Islam, even though there's quite a few messed up stuff in the New Testament, Torah or even the Buddhist and Hindu texts.
Hypocrisy?

One wonders how many threads there are on all those other alleged pedophiles...?
 

McBell

Unbound
Given how recent "adult" marriages are I'm willing to give Muhammad a free pass on this one.
I agree.
Except that I do not give a "free pass".
I reserve judgment until there is enough viable information to make an informed judgement.
 

McBell

Unbound
I'm suspicious of calling it pedophilia. Seems too much like a slur to me. If Mohammed was oriented towards sex with children, then why were his other wives so much older than children? Why did Aisha remain his favorite even after she outgrew childhood? Lots of questions there.
I too am suspicious of calling it pedophilia:

Pedophilia is termed pedophilic disorder in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5), and the manual defines it as a paraphilia in which adults or adolescents 16 years of age or older have intense and recurrent sexual urges towards and fantasies about prepubescent children that they have either acted on or which cause them distress or interpersonal difficulty. The International Classification of Diseases (ICD-10) defines it as a sexual preference for children of prepubertal or early pubertal age.

Source
 

McBell

Unbound
Because pedophilia is sexual arousal only by children, of either sex. That is quite obviously not the case here.
I have not seen any definition of pedophilia that states "only by children" in any form.

Please be so kind as to enlighten me with your source.
 

YmirGF

Bodhisattva in Recovery
I too am suspicious of calling it pedophilia:

Pedophilia is termed pedophilic disorder in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5), and the manual defines it as a paraphilia in which adults or adolescents 16 years of age or older have intense and recurrent sexual urges towards and fantasies about prepubescent children that they have either acted on or which cause them distress or interpersonal difficulty. The International Classification of Diseases (ICD-10) defines it as a sexual preference for children of prepubertal or early pubertal age.

Source
Given this, I'm reluctant to pin that tail on this particular donkey.
Personally, I'm not aware of Muhammad fixating on any other child, tho he did have a thing for deadmen's wives.
 

McBell

Unbound
Given this, I'm reluctant to pin that tail on this particular donkey.
Personally, I'm not aware of Muhammad fixating on any other child, tho he did have a thing for deadmen's wives.
I strongly suspect if there were any other minors Mohammed was "involved" with we would know about it simply because it would be more fuel for "Mohammed is a pedo" crowd.
 

YmirGF

Bodhisattva in Recovery
One must also remember that "women" were seen as little more than cattle in that era.
 

Moishe3rd

Yehudi
What does "morally acceptable" mean?
If that is a meaningless phrase based on whatever "morals" any given society favors at any particular time then, who cares? It's a meaningless idea.
If all morals come from G-d; a Divine Creator, then yes - consensual sex with a minor is morally acceptable.
 

leibowde84

Veteran Member
What does "morally acceptable" mean?
If that is a meaningless phrase based on whatever "morals" any given society favors at any particular time then, who cares? It's a meaningless idea.
If all morals come from G-d; a Divine Creator, then yes - consensual sex with a minor is morally acceptable.
It probably isn't either of the options you mentioned. Morality, as it seems, is a function of societal evolution, meaning it improves upon itself over time. If this were the case, it could be said that Muhammad wasn't acting morally correct, but, since our morals as a socity had not evolved to that point yet, Muhammad should be considered "in the clear."
 

McBell

Unbound
It probably isn't either of the options you mentioned. Morality, as it seems, is a function of societal evolution, meaning it improves upon itself over time. If this were the case, it could be said that Muhammad wasn't acting morally correct, but, since our morals as a socity had not evolved to that point yet, Muhammad should be considered "in the clear."
Grandfather Clause?
 

Moishe3rd

Yehudi
It probably isn't either of the options you mentioned. Morality, as it seems, is a function of societal evolution, meaning it improves upon itself over time. If this were the case, it could be said that Muhammad wasn't acting morally correct, but, since our morals as a socity had not evolved to that point yet, Muhammad should be considered "in the clear."
If your premise were true, each generation of "moral evolution" would be "more moral" than the previous.
As this is obviously historically false, your premise is inaccurate.
There is no evidence that morality "improves upon itself over time."
 

leibowde84

Veteran Member
If your premise were true, each generation of "moral evolution" would be "more moral" than the previous.
As this is obviously historically false, your premise is inaccurate.
There is no evidence that morality "improves upon itself over time."
Morality has 100% for sure improved over time. Obviously, there will always be exceptions, but morality must be looked at in general.

1. Amount of slavery has decreased over time
2. Treatment of women has improved over time
3. Adherance to religious dogma (in most of the world) has decreased over time
4. No more kings (again, in most of the world)
5. Interracial/intermarriage more acceptable
6. Female reproduction rights improved upon
7. I could go on and on

So many things have improved (in general) regarding morality.

What is an example of something that has gotten worse in our structure of morality over time in general (by "in general" I mean that, of course, anyone can pick out exceptions, but we are discussing civilized society).
 
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