1) JM2C said (post # 365) - The 3rd clause, the natural word order in Greek as John wrote it in Greek should be “kai theos en ho logos” “and God was the Word”, but you said, “I wrote them in the same order.
Honestly, What would you, as a non-greek reader-writer know about “natural word order” in ancient greek? This aside, “Θεος ην ο λογος” IS the word order John used (and there are no significant manuscript variations on this sentence). When I pointed out that "Ο λογος ην θεος." means exactly the same as "θεος ην ο λογος." I simply repeated the first version. Look back at my note.
2) JM2C said (post # 365) - My sentence means “The word was a God.”. Now, how did you end up with the “a god” if there was no indefinite article in Greek?
It is interesting that you, who cannot read nor translate accurate greek, are trying to teach forum members Greek. Have someone HELP you who CAN read greek.
My sentence means “The word was a God.” Specifically BECAUSE I left out the article. There IS NO “indefinite article in Greek. It doesn't exist. One indicates indefiniteness in Greek by omitting the definite article.
LOOK at your elementary mistakes : You said : “in Greek should be “kai theos en ho logos” “and God was the Word”. In koine greek, the article IS the subject. Thus, your english translation of this simple, five word sentence, is incorrect. In english the Subject MUST come first. One does not say in English, “Blue is the pencil.” but rather, the Subject comes first. “The pencil is blue.” In greek, it does not matter. Have a friend who knows greek, HELP you.
3) JM2C said (post # 365) - “Yes, I would write it differently because I can only write what I’ve read, and that is, “kai theos en ho logos” without the indefinite article.
BUT YOU AREN’T WRITING IT DIFFERENTLY. Your cut and paste is the same.
In writing "The Word is a God." You wrote “Θεος ην ο λογος”. To translate "The Word is a God." I ALSO wrote “θεος ην ο λογος”. This is EXACTLY the same as what John wrote. Your “translation” uses the same words in the same order as mine and the writer of John.
4) JM2C said (post # 365) - Without the definite article in front of the “theos” does not mean there is an indefinite article in front of “theos”.
I very MUCH agree with you here, since, as I've said before, an indefinite article does not even EXIST in greek. ASK someone who reads greek to HELP you.
5) JM2C said (post # 365) - You need to read and understand all the 3 clauses involve in this verse to be able to conclude correctly.
Ah, so, a greek atheist or greek agnostic or greek of any other persuasion but yours would not be able to understand this greek?? Really?
FORUM MEMBERS :
In translating “The word was A God.” into clear greek :
Clear wrote “Θεος ην ο λογος”
JM2C wrote : “Θεος ην ο λογος”.
John 1:1 wrote ”Θεος ην ο λογος”.
Does ANYONE in the forum see any difference? Anyone?
Johns writing can mean either "The God" or "A God". It is that simple, no amount of cutting and pasting of grammarian jargon was ever necessary.
Clear
PS : katiemygirl, Katzpur is correct. I am an adult convert to the LDS / Mormon theological model. I used to have this designation under my avatar but never re-entered it when the forum database changed.