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Is Underage Marriage Allowed in Islam?

RAYYAN

Proud Muslim
Then there is the issue of Muhammad (Islam's ultimate role model) marrying a a six year old and having sex with her when she was 9 (presumably he was waiting for the first period, the sign of adulthood in Islam).

Let's say that is true, What's the problem with that?
In 1980 age of marriage in many US states was 10 and it was 7 in Delaware (Source)
So, who are you to dictate the age of marriage 1400 years ago?
The marriage of young girls was widely spread in those times in Arabia and outside Arabia

But......
- Before marrying the prophet, Aisha was engaged to a man called Jober Ibn Al-Moteam Ibn Oday. That means she was even younger than the age where she married the Prophet after two years of that. People at that time didn't object to that because her age was ok to be married at a time

- Since the parents of Aisha, the previous fiance, and the whole tribe were ok with the engagement of Aiesha to Jober 2 years before she marry the prophet, and they are all ok with that, do you call the whole tribe child molesters, or it is just cherry picking by reserving that name to the Prophet only?

I really want you to think twice and be honest before passing judgment
Aisha was older than that age when she got married, or, it was totally acceptable to get married in that age with no fault of the Prophet
 

KWED

Scratching head, scratching knee
Total rubbish !
I have already explained why you are wrong, but you ignore it, and keep heckling.
You are entitled to believe what you want to believe.
No. You have presented your opinion.
However, you have not explained why all those Classical Arabic speaking, Muslim scholars are all wrong in their interpretation.
Remember that I am not providing my own opinion on the verse. I am just presenting the opinions of several renowned Muslim scholars.

I am amongst those that follow Islam, and I don't believe that Allah tells people to sexually abuse anybody, regardless of age or sex.
That is not Islam.
That is quite the straw man. You are just imposing your own moral standards on 7th century Arabia. Obviously Muhammad didn't consider having sex with a 9 year old to be "child abuse". Neither did he consider using female captives for sex as "rape". Those are more modern labels for 7th century behaviour. They were not labels at the time.
And it wouldn't be an issue if Muhammad was just a 7th century ruler, and the Quran a record of 7th century Arab life. But they aren't. They are revered as a perfect and timeless guide and example for all mankind - not just for 7th century Arabia.

All you are doing is finding "holes", that you know exist, because you are from Muslim culture.
You can't misguide people who Allah SWT guides .. it is impossible. :D
No idea what you are trying to say there.
 

KWED

Scratching head, scratching knee
Let's say that is true, What's the problem with that?
In the context of a 7th century Arab warlord? Nothing.
In the context of the perfect moral role model for all people and all times - quite a bit, obviously (because it would imply that having sex with a 9 year old is ok today).

In 1980 age of marriage in many US states was 10 and it was 7 in Delaware
Whataboutery is the last resort of a failed argument. ;)

So, who are you to dictate the age of marriage 1400 years ago?
The marriage of young girls was widely spread in those times in Arabia and outside Arabia
You are still missing the point.
This isn't about people in 7th century Arabia having sex with 9 year olds.
It is about a person who had sex with a 9 year old being revered as the perfect moral example today. That means that whatever they did then must be considered acceptable today.

But......
- Before marrying the prophet, Aisha was engaged to a man called Jober Ibn Al-Moteam Ibn Oday. That means she was even younger than the age where she married the Prophet after two years of that. People at that time didn't object to that because her age was ok to be married at a time

- Since the parents of Aisha, the previous fiance, and the whole tribe were ok with the engagement of Aiesha to Jober 2 years before she marry the prophet, and they are all ok with that, do you call the whole tribe child molesters, or it is just cherry picking by reserving that name to the Prophet only?

I really want you to think twice and be honest before passing judgment
See point above.
It is irrelevant what was acceptable practice in 7th century Arabia.

Aisha was older than that age when she got married,
Was she? Sources please.

or, it was totally acceptable to get married in that age with no fault of the Prophet
So you are claiming that Muhammad was just a man of his time and place, not the "best of creation", the ultimate role model for all humanity who was in communication with an omniscient god?
 

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
No idea what you are trying to say there.
It's quite simple. You exploit apparent contradictions, by
quoting from "reputable scholars" as if their opinion is infallible.
It isn't.
...
..and then you suggest that their opinions must be superior to mine.
Again, they aren't. Islam does not promote iniquity.
I will not follow falsehood blindly, whatever the source.

Regards quibbling about ages of young ladies, it is debatable.
Islam is quite clear [from Qur'an], that adulthood begins at puberty.
That can vary.
 
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RAYYAN

Proud Muslim
In the context of a 7th century Arab warlord? Nothing.
In the context of the perfect moral role model for all people and all times - quite a bit, obviously (because it would imply that having sex with a 9 year old is ok today).

LOL - This is a silly man
I never said it is ok to marry at that age today
Let me ask you a question, is it ok to put a 16 or 18 years boy as a leader if US is in a battle?
Is his or her age a barrier to such task?

Whataboutery is the last resort of a failed argument. ;)

Oh, you don't have a reasonable response! Got it ;)

You are still missing the point.
This isn't about people in 7th century Arabia having sex with 9 year olds.
It is about a person who had sex with a 9 year old being revered as the perfect moral example today. That means that whatever they did then must be considered acceptable today.

I am not missing the point, it is who is twisting my word to get a conclusion on your own. That is dishonest. IF any man married a young girl 1400, and the society was ok with it, it is not my place to say otherwise, but I am not saying it is ok to marry young girls today

See point above.
It is irrelevant what was acceptable practice in 7th century Arabia.

It is pretty much relevant

Was she? Sources please.

It is simple English, my conclusion is "She was or..."
simple English

So you are claiming that Muhammad was just a man of his time and place, not the "best of creation", the ultimate role model for all humanity who was in communication with an omniscient god?

He was all that, I don't see contradiction between all that and abiding by the rule of his society

So you are saying it is ok for a man to marry young girls 1400 years ago, but it is not ok to do the same for Muhammed PBUH!
 
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KWED

Scratching head, scratching knee
Islam is quite clear [from Qur'an], that adulthood begins at puberty.
So you consider it morally acceptable for a middle-aged man to marry and have sex with a young girl once she has had her first period. Correct?
 

KWED

Scratching head, scratching knee
LOL - This is a silly man
I never said it is ok to marry at that age today
But if it was morally ok for Muhammad to do it (the perfect moral role model) then it must be morally ok today, in principle - even though individual governments of men may ban it.
Remember, what Allah has made halal, no man can make haram.

Let me ask you a question, is it ok to put a 16 or 18 years boy as a leader if US is in a battle?
Is his or her age a barrier to such task?
If the leader during the Revolutionary Wars was 16, and the constitution said that 16 year olds can lead the army, then you would probably find a lot of Americans insisting it is ok.

However, the difference that you (and others) keep missing with such analogies is that unlike anyone else you may refer to, Muhammed is revered as "the best of creation", the ultimate moral and practical role model for all Muslims to aspire to.
The only examples that even come close is in ideological dictatorships where the cult of the personality of people like Mao and Kim Il-Sung were established.

Oh, you don't have a reasonable response! Got it ;)
Your "argument" required no response. I'll explain...
"You have been charged with murder, how do you plead?"
"Well, yeh I did it, but there's a bloke down the road who murdered someone as well. Can I go now?"


(Just in case you didn't get it - if Delaware allows 8 year old girls to get married, it is wrong as well.)

I am not missing the point, it is who is twisting my word to get a conclusion on your own. That is dishonest. IF any man married a young girl 1400, and the society was ok with it, it is not my place to say otherwise, but I am not saying it is ok to marry young girls today
Ye gods! :rolleyes:
This is not about cultural practices in 7th century Arabia.
It is about the example set by "the best of creation". A person claimed to be the perfect moral role model. Someone who all Muslims aspire to emulate.
If the man who tended Muhammad's date palms has sex with a child, no one would care. Because he is not a moral role model to 1.7 billion people.
I feel that you are now deliberately ignoring this key issue.

It is pretty much relevant
See above.

It is simple English, my conclusion is "She was or..."
simple English
You've lost me now.
You claimed that she was older than 6/9.
I asked you for your sources for that claim.
You reply does not address my question in any way.

He was all that, I don't see contradiction between all that and abiding by the rule of his society
I asked was he x or y.
You say he was both. That makes no sense.

So you are saying it is ok for a man to marry young girls 1400 years ago, but it is not ok to do the same for Muhammed PBUH!
:facepalm:
No. It was ok for anyone to do it in 7th century Arabia because it was not considered unacceptable by the moral standards of the time.
The problem is that because you claim he was "the best of creation", the ultimate role model for all humanity, the perfect moral exemplar, it means that whatever he did then is morally acceptable in principle today, even though it might be against the law in practice.
Muhammad lived by Allah's objective, divine moral standards. Therefore having sex with a 9 year old is objectively morally acceptable in god's eyes, and that cannot change. Do you understand now?

Example.
If the law banned circumcision, would you then accept that circumcision is now morally unacceptable, or would you still think it was morally acceptable in principle, even though you obeyed the law and didn't circumcise your sons?
 

Raymann

Active Member
After reviewing all the data contributed by some members it is easy to conclude that Quran 65:4 (Divorce) in the second part clearly refers to "Women who have not yet reached menstruation (puberty).
So obviously we know these are women who have married before puberty therefore this verse proves that ISLAM ALLOWS UNDERAGE MARRIAGE.

muhammad_isa unsuccessfully tried to defend the idea that is not the case and that the second part of Quran 65:4 only means "women who at the time were not menstruating".
That of course was a poor attempt to defend Islam as any good apologist would try to do.
muhammad_isa chose to ignore all the following interpretations from very reputable Islamic Scholars as shown here:

Why don't we consult some of Islam's leading scholars?...
"those who do not have menstruation because they are too young" - Ibn Abbas
"those who have not yet menstruated, because of their young age" - Al Jalalayn
"the young, who have not reached the years of menstruation" - Ibn Kathir
"They may not have menstruated as yet either because of young age" - Ala Maududi
"Those who are too young [such that they have not started menstruating yet]" - Al-Wahidi

but instead, he relied on a very poor translation/interpretation from an
English convert in the 1920s.

Ha ha :D
It is a translation by an English convert in the 1920's [Marmaduke Pickthall].

Let's look at the verse again:
Marmaduke Pickthall (Quran 65:4)
"And for such of your women as despair of menstruation, if ye doubt, their period (of waiting) shall be three months, ALONG WITH THOSE WHO HAVE IT NOT".

And the important part is "along with those who have it not"
How do you go from women who have not yet reached menstruation to:
"women who at the moment are not menstruating?
or "women who have missed their period?
That is taking advantage of a very "unclear" to say the least phrase.

10 points to muhammad_isa for the effort but the evidence is overwhelming against his way of interpreting this verse.
 

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
muhammad_isa chose to ignore all the following interpretations from very reputable Islamic Scholars..

Yes, and you still haven't commentated on the word-for-word translation.
You need to ask a "reputable scholar" what each Arabic word means in this verse.
Then you will see that it is not God that is saying these translations, but the translators.
[adding their own tafsir]

but instead, he relied on a very poor translation/interpretation from an
English convert in the 1920s.
It's a simple translation, which is closer to the original Arabic in this case.
 

RAYYAN

Proud Muslim
But if it was morally ok for Muhammad to do it (the perfect moral role model) then it must be morally ok today, in principle - even though individual governments of men may ban it.
Remember, what Allah has made halal, no man can make haram.

No, it will not be ok today
In Islam, there is something called a social norm. It is totally fine if something that was socially acceptable back then is no acceptable today unless it is something specific like drinking alcohol, eating pork,.....etc. When it comes to the age of marriage, nothing was specified.
Your argument fails here LOL

If the leader during the Revolutionary Wars was 16, and the constitution said that 16 year olds can lead the army, then you would probably find a lot of Americans insisting it is ok.

However, the difference that you (and others) keep missing with such analogies is that unlike anyone else you may refer to, Muhammed is revered as "the best of creation", the ultimate moral and practical role model for all Muslims to aspire to.
The only examples that even come close is in ideological dictatorships where the cult of the personality of people like Mao and Kim Il-Sung were established.

Don't tell me where I am going with this because I didn't make the point
Revolutionary Wars! that was in 1977 right
But, how about today in 2022?

Your "argument" required no response. I'll explain...
"You have been charged with murder, how do you plead?"
"Well, yeh I did it, but there's a bloke down the road who murdered someone as well. Can I go now?"


(Just in case you didn't get it - if Delaware allows 8 year old girls to get married, it is wrong as well.)

"Your "argument" required no response"! However, you responded. Admit it, you can't resist my amazing arguments :)

However, I never said the Delaware age of marriage was right or wrong. I never said because they are doing it, we can do it too. You seem to be jumping to conclusions.

My point with that was, the age of marriage constantly changed during the centuries, for each time has its own moral values, we don't have the right to tell them you were wrong because we were not there, and we don't really know what happened, or how people lived

Ye gods! :rolleyes:
This is not about cultural practices in 7th century Arabia.
It is about the example set by "the best of creation". A person claimed to be the perfect moral role model. Someone who all Muslims aspire to emulate.
If the man who tended Muhammad's date palms has sex with a child, no one would care. Because he is not a moral role model to 1.7 billion people.
I feel that you are now deliberately ignoring this key issue.

See above.

Again, I don't see anything wrong in what the Prophet did. He did what was done and was accepted at that time. Also, We don't really know how old Aisha was when she got married, but whatever age she was, she was a woman, and the act was acceptable by anyone in Arabia and outside Arabia.
So, please stop saying I ignored your point

You've lost me now.
You claimed that she was older than 6/9.
I asked you for your sources for that claim.
You reply does not address my question in any way.

This is what I said
"Aisha was older than that age when she got married, or, it was totally acceptable to get married in that age with no fault of the Prophet"
So stop saying I said she was 6 or 9.

I asked was he x or y.
You say he was both. That makes no sense.

Is Z the answer?
He was a man, a prophet, who did what was totally acceptable by marrying a woman who reached the age of puberty and was engaged to another man 2 years before that marriage


No. It was ok for anyone to do it in 7th century Arabia because it was not considered unacceptable by the moral standards of the time.
The problem is that because you claim he was "the best of creation", the ultimate role model for all humanity, the perfect moral exemplar, it means that whatever he did then is morally acceptable in principle today, even though it might be against the law in practice.
Muhammad lived by Allah's objective, divine moral standards. Therefore having sex with a 9 year old is objectively morally acceptable in god's eyes, and that cannot change. Do you understand now?

I am sorry, but this is really messed up
You want Muhammed to reject the law and norm that was acceptable in his time, and live by the law and norm of 2022 while he lived 1400 years ago!
Try to squeeze your brain here and see how crazy that sounds

Example.
If the law banned circumcision, would you then accept that circumcision is now morally unacceptable, or would you still think it was morally acceptable in principle, even though you obeyed the law and didn't circumcise your sons?

Your analogy is wrong
You are asking a man who lived 1400 to abide by the law of 2022
regarding circumcision, I will abide by the law of the land while thinking it is wrong

Mohammed didn't do something wrong, for two reasons
1. He didn't come and marry a child in 2022
2. He didn't marry a child at all even at his time. You seem to be taking this issue as a fact. as I sid above, He married a woman who reached the age of puberty and was engaged to another man 2 years before that marriage, and it was totally fine and acceptable
 
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Raymann

Active Member
Raymann said:
but instead, he relied on a very poor translation/interpretation from an
English convert in the 1920s.

t's a simple translation, which is closer to the original Arabic in this case.

Here is the one you've been asking.
Verse (65:4) - Word by Word
translation:
and the ones who
not
menstruated.
Note: it doesn't say "who has not menstruated this month"
It only says who has not menstruated, PERIOD.

99 % of the most reputable Islamic Scholars understood it means women who are too young to menstruate.

But you cannot accept being wrong, you cannot accept that Islam is not what you would like it to be but it is what it is.
Islam is not your personal religion, Islam has its own rules and you cannot impose rules based on your personal morals.
No wonder there are more than 70 Islamic sects.
Everybody makes up their own interpretation.
There is ONLY ONE QURAN, Muslims claim, BUT THERE ARE A THOUSAND INTERPRETATIONS OF IT.
Good luck with your Islamic sect.
 

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
99 % of the most reputable Islamic Scholars understood it means women who are too young to menstruate..
Birds of a feather flock together. :)

What's it to you, anyway?
I wonder why you go out of your way to show that Muslims should believe that it is alright to have intercourse with immature girls.

I will NEVER believe that.
..and I don't personally believe that reputable scholars did either.

If anything, all you are doing is increasing my faith. :)
 

Raymann

Active Member
Can you support your claim?

Maybe you are right, it was not 99%, and maybe it should be 100%.
Even the one muhammad_isa claims to disagree with is actually his own interpretation of something the scholar never said. The Scholar used very unclear English and Muhammad_isa took advantage of that fact to interpret it the way he wanted to.

Do you have any Scholar that clearly disagrees with the second part of Quran 65:4 meaning: women who have not menstruated yet because they are too young?
 

muhammad_isa

Veteran Member
Maybe you are right, it was not 99%, and maybe it should be 100%.
Personally, I don't care. :)
I believe that the Qur'an is the word of God.

I do NOT believe in worshipping "scholars".
Don't get me wrong, I love listening to intellectuals, but I have my own mind, and follow what I see fit.

..and if anybody says that the Qur'an says that it is alright to have intercourse with young immature girls, then I think that they are just repeating the mistake of a "sheikh" .. such as Ibn Kathir, who I greatly respect .. but not worship.
 

RAYYAN

Proud Muslim
Maybe you are right, it was not 99%, and maybe it should be 100%.
Even the one muhammad_isa claims to disagree with is actually his own interpretation of something the scholar never said. The Scholar used very unclear English and Muhammad_isa took advantage of that fact to interpret it the way he wanted to.

Do you have any Scholar that clearly disagrees with the second part of Quran 65:4 meaning: women who have not menstruated yet because they are too young?

I have no desire to debate about this, I just want to know if I was misinformed about my religion, so I ask you again;
You said "99 % of the most reputable Islamic Scholars understood it means women who are too young to menstruate"

2ND ATTEMPT: CAN YOU SUPPORT YOUR CLAIM RAYMANN?
 
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