Brian2
Veteran Member
Imagine reading a book from the beginning to the end.
Hah! Only a Jew would do that!
Imagine stopping the reading of the Bible at the end of the Tanakh. Only a Jew would do that.
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Imagine reading a book from the beginning to the end.
Hah! Only a Jew would do that!
....He sure took his time - this contradicts the hurrying part of Passover.
Do you know who the speaker is in that section, then? Who the first person pronouns represent?No not really.
No, Jews don't do that. But thanks for playing.Imagine stopping the reading of the Bible at the end of the Tanakh. Only a Jew would do that.
Do you know who the speaker is in that section, then? Who the first person pronouns represent?
I tried to lay out the speakers and pronouns -- I had columns in the Word document, but I couldn't cut and paste the formatting here so I used ***** to split up the left side (the translated text) and the right side, the explanation of pronouns and references. If you need me to show the Hebrew to clarify, let me know. I can do that as well.I may make a difference who the speaker is in the early section.
The variation in translations is quite large in places especially between a Jewish Tanakh and Christian OT translations.
The end of Isa 52 looks like God talking and then it seems to be a matter of opinion. It could be the Kings of chapter 52 or Isaiah and the Kings of ch 52.
Imagine stopping the reading of the Bible at the end of the Tanakh. Only a Jew would do that.
Well, even if so, I don't assume that we have the actual recording.
I don't assume that such parallels would have to be exact because if that were the case, they wouldn't any longer be symbolic but would actually be the original. IOW, the symbols are not the exact thing that they symbolize.
As you know, even though Torah is linear in time, there's sorta like flashbacks whereas somethings may be repeated but not precisely the same, such as the two creation accounts [Gen. 1:1 and 2:4-- the order is slightly different].
Pretty smug answer considering Islam exists.
Possibly, but now we are quite certain that they are different because they were written at different times and by different authors, especially since it's likely they were carried as part of an oral tradition prior to being written.The 2nd one seems to be what happened when God created man. It is not the story of the whole of creation. That story is in Gen 1.
But he himself did not hurry to get up. Bizarre.
Source: The voices in my head
A number of recent posts related to Jesus rising on Easter or the like made me realize that this would make Jesus kind of the opposite of one of the main ideas of Passover, which is ironic because Christians consider him to be the ultimate Passover lamb.
Let me explain: During Passover, Jews eat unleavened bread, called "matzah" in Hebrew. This is in memory of the bread that the Israelites took with them out of Egypt which didn't rise because they left hurriedly. You can probably already tell where I'm going with this...
The Israelites were hurriedly taken out of Egypt. This seems kind of strange because as they were in Egypt for so long, God couldn't wait a few hours more for them to make proper bread? There are many answers to this question, but the general idea is that it was necessary for the Israelites to leave in a hurry, and it was likewise necessary for the bread not to have had enough time to rise.
Jesus, on the other hand, is said to have risen after three days. In other words, he was in no real hurry, and he rose, just like the sort of bread that is not consumed on Passover.
So it seems to me difficult to suggest that Jesus somehow fulfilled Passover or something like that. Quite the opposite, actually.
Isaiah 53:7 - the lamb goes silent to the slaughter
He was oppressed, and he was afflicted, yet he would not open his mouth; like a lamb to the slaughter he would be brought, and like a ewe that is mute before her shearers, and he would not open his mouth.is contradicted by:
Matthew 27:46 - Jesus cries out in a loud voice on the cross
About three in the afternoon Jesus cried out in a loud voice, “Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani?” (which means “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”).
Jesus called Himself the bread from heaven and the unleavened bread at Passover symbolises Jesus in that way and also in the fact that it is unleavened, leaven being symbolic of sin or evil, and Jesus being without sin.
Yes, Jews left Egypt in a hurry because they had killed people in their sleep and stolen their gold.A number of recent posts related to Jesus rising on Easter or the like made me realize that this would make Jesus kind of the opposite of one of the main ideas of Passover, which is ironic because Christians consider him to be the ultimate Passover lamb.
Let me explain: During Passover, Jews eat unleavened bread, called "matzah" in Hebrew. This is in memory of the bread that the Israelites took with them out of Egypt which didn't rise because they left hurriedly. You can probably already tell where I'm going with this...
The Israelites were hurriedly taken out of Egypt. This seems kind of strange because as they were in Egypt for so long, God couldn't wait a few hours more for them to make proper bread? There are many answers to this question, but the general idea is that it was necessary for the Israelites to leave in a hurry, and it was likewise necessary for the bread not to have had enough time to rise.
Jesus, on the other hand, is said to have risen after three days. In other words, he was in no real hurry, and he rose, just like the sort of bread that is not consumed on Passover.
So it seems to me difficult to suggest that Jesus somehow fulfilled Passover or something like that. Quite the opposite, actually.
The Jews by their laws had to bury Jesus quickly and assure he died quickly because their laws state if a condemned by Jews man dies or is buried on the Sabbath then a "curse" is on the heads of the Hebrew/Jews. Because of their hocus pocus beliefs of divine curses associated with men they demand die for offenses they claim is an offense, Jews wanted Jesus in his tomb before their Sabbath to avoid a "curse" upon themselves.When he died on the high Sabbath, they hurriedly buried him.
Quite frankly, from the inception, I really don't see the point here. I feel like we are trying to create a mountain out of a hill--like we are trying to force a square peg in a round hole.
The bread of Jesus is his doctrine and it is not the Jewish doctrine, bread. They have completely different doctrine. Jesus was leading people away from being a Jew supporting Jewish beliefs not turning people into being a Jew. Jews kept trying to stone Jesus to death because Jesus was breaking their laws and not supporting their beliefs.I guess!
But it seems that, in general, this is just a Christian reading using a Christian exegetical method. Jews are naturally not seeing thigs the way Christians do; so they're not seeing anything metaphorical about the matzah to begin with, where for Christians, who do not eat matzah or celebrate Pesach the way Jews do, they have to give it another meaning. So the matzah becomes a wafer - unleavened bread - that in Catholic liturgy at the Eucharist, and the whole of Christendom, is called Jesus' body, and Jesus called himself the 'bread of life'. So hopefully you can see how these things are purposefully conflated. The Orthodox Church specifically uses leavened bread, as leaven is not always seen as bad in their theology, and more or less represents rising and the fullness of time etc.
Not sure if this is what you are looking for, but it's what I can offer.
Possibly, but now we are quite certain that they are different because they were written at different times and by different authors, especially since it's likely they were carried as part of an oral tradition prior to being written.
Either way, we should never assume that "variations" match, imo.