Dimi95
Прaвославие!
Hi @blü 2 , i would like to ask some questions and answer since you made a lot of unsupported opinions.
So,
First we need to see if it is really ordinary as you say.
Or
What has 'He is not descended from David' have to do 'you don't need to be' and who says that anyone has to be?
There is no such thing as 'Impregnates' in our culture.
"Wachira Murage, a doctor based at Savannah Healthcare, says naturally, fertilisation of gametes (sex cells) only occurs between a male and a female of the same species. Hence a dog's sperm cannot fertilise a human's egg. This means fantasy seekers with animals cannot get pregnant."
Even his birth starts with a miracle in the narratives.
We cannot explain how it happend.It's impossible if you orient yourself with science.
The only way that seems to be logical is if you belive that he was born 'differently'.
The Gospel of Luke Ch.1 talks about it in some sense:
30-31
"So the angel said to her; 'Do not be afraid, Mary, for you have found favor with God.'
'And Look! you will become pregnant and give birth to a son, and you are to name him Jesus'."
Then Mary asked:
"But Mary said to the angel:
'How is this to be, since I am not having sexual relations with a man?
In answer the angel said to her:
'Holy spirit will come upon you, and power of the Most High will overshadow you, and for that reason the one who is born will be called holy, God's Son.'
So, Mary asked, how was it possible for her to become pregnant without having sexual relations with a man?
It's quite clear that she understands how a child can be conceived.
Jewish culture is known for its geneology.
This is how Matthew starts:
"This is the genealogy of Jesus the Messiah the son of David, the son of Abraham:"
And who is the the father of Joseph then ? Jacob or Heli ?
The virgin conception account is told from Joseph's perspective in Matthew 1:18-25, while Luke - who most likely gathers much of his information from eyewitnesses told the virgin conception account from Mary's perspective (Luke 1:1-4).
It is highly plausible thag Matthew is giving the genealogy of Joseph and Luke is following the Hebraic, traditional form of genealogies by listing only the male names in which Mary is designated by her husband's name.
Was Jacob or Heli The Father of Joseph?
(Matthew 1:16; Luke 3:23)
Matthew 1:16: "And Jacob begot Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus who is called Christ."
Luke 3:23: "Now Jesus Himself began His ministry at about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, the son of Heli"
In order to solve this alleged discrepancy, it must be understood that Matthew's account is giving the genealogy of Joseph while Luke gives the genealogy of Mary. This is borne out by the fact that in Matthew's account the virgin conception account is told from Joseph's perspective in Matthew 1:18-25; while Luke, who most likely gathers much of his information from eyewitnesses (including Mary) told the virgin conception account from Mary's perspective (Luke 1:1-4).
Why then is Joseph mentioned in both lists of genealogies (Matthew 1:16; Luke 3:23)? First, Matthew is giving the genealogy of Joseph and Luke is following the Hebraic, traditional form of genealogies by listing only the male names in which Mary is designated by her husband's name.
Hebrews used the word 'son' in different senses, referring to:
-One generation - example: Solomon was the 'son of' David - Matthew 1:6
-a remote descendant (such as a grandson, great-grandson, etc. - Matthew 1:1; 21:9; 22:42)
-A son-in-law (1 Samuel 24:16; 26:17) *This makes sense in the context that Joseph was the 'son' (son-in-law) of Heli.
-The Levirate marriage law (Deuteronomy 25:5-10; Matthew 22:24-26)
-a step-son who took on the legal status of his step-father (which is what Jesus was to Joseph - Matthew 13:55; Mark 6:3; Luke 3:23; 4:22; John 6:42)
What is here so controversial?
Per most of the top scholars who've spent time defining Gnosticism — like Karen King and Michael Williams (Rethinking 'Gnosticism'):
-probably the defining characteristic of Gnosticism is the belief that the world was not created by the true God, but by a deceiving demiurge.
This bears utterly no relation to any historic views considered to be even remotely representative of the Early Church.
No relation - none - zero!
So,
How do you mean five different versions , in what sense do you suggest that? State the verses,present the evidence.So, for example, how do you account for the five different versions of Jesus in the NT, each devised by an author who never met an historical Jesus?
Nono , 'I AM' from Exodus is in Mark , one verse is enough to prove otherwise.The Jesus of Mark is an ordinary Jewish man
Untill?until his baptism by JtB, at which point the heavens open and God adopts him as [his] son on the model of Psalm 2:7 (affirmed at Acts 13:33).
First we need to see if it is really ordinary as you say.
What is the connection between the first and the second statement?He is not descended from David and says you don't need to be.
Or
What has 'He is not descended from David' have to do 'you don't need to be' and who says that anyone has to be?
'Impregnetes'?The Jesus of Matthew is born when God impregnates his mother, meaning he has God's Y-chromosome.
There is no such thing as 'Impregnates' in our culture.
"Wachira Murage, a doctor based at Savannah Healthcare, says naturally, fertilisation of gametes (sex cells) only occurs between a male and a female of the same species. Hence a dog's sperm cannot fertilise a human's egg. This means fantasy seekers with animals cannot get pregnant."
Even his birth starts with a miracle in the narratives.
We cannot explain how it happend.It's impossible if you orient yourself with science.
The only way that seems to be logical is if you belive that he was born 'differently'.
The Gospel of Luke Ch.1 talks about it in some sense:
30-31
"So the angel said to her; 'Do not be afraid, Mary, for you have found favor with God.'
'And Look! you will become pregnant and give birth to a son, and you are to name him Jesus'."
Then Mary asked:
"But Mary said to the angel:
'How is this to be, since I am not having sexual relations with a man?
In answer the angel said to her:
'Holy spirit will come upon you, and power of the Most High will overshadow you, and for that reason the one who is born will be called holy, God's Son.'
So, Mary asked, how was it possible for her to become pregnant without having sexual relations with a man?
It's quite clear that she understands how a child can be conceived.
Non-sensical? Why , what are the reasons ?He's said to be descended from David by a nonsensical 'genealogy' that leads to Joseph, who is expressly NOT his father.
Jewish culture is known for its geneology.
Jewish Genealogy - Judaism 101 (JewFAQ)
Learn how to research your Jewish family tree
www.jewfaq.org
This is how Matthew starts:
"This is the genealogy of Jesus the Messiah the son of David, the son of Abraham:"
Joseph accepted Jesus as his son.The Jesus of Luke is similar, but the pretend genealogy is again for Joseph, and irreconcilable with Matthew's.
And who is the the father of Joseph then ? Jacob or Heli ?
The virgin conception account is told from Joseph's perspective in Matthew 1:18-25, while Luke - who most likely gathers much of his information from eyewitnesses told the virgin conception account from Mary's perspective (Luke 1:1-4).
It is highly plausible thag Matthew is giving the genealogy of Joseph and Luke is following the Hebraic, traditional form of genealogies by listing only the male names in which Mary is designated by her husband's name.
Was Jacob or Heli The Father of Joseph?
(Matthew 1:16; Luke 3:23)
Matthew 1:16: "And Jacob begot Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus who is called Christ."
Luke 3:23: "Now Jesus Himself began His ministry at about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph, the son of Heli"
In order to solve this alleged discrepancy, it must be understood that Matthew's account is giving the genealogy of Joseph while Luke gives the genealogy of Mary. This is borne out by the fact that in Matthew's account the virgin conception account is told from Joseph's perspective in Matthew 1:18-25; while Luke, who most likely gathers much of his information from eyewitnesses (including Mary) told the virgin conception account from Mary's perspective (Luke 1:1-4).
Why then is Joseph mentioned in both lists of genealogies (Matthew 1:16; Luke 3:23)? First, Matthew is giving the genealogy of Joseph and Luke is following the Hebraic, traditional form of genealogies by listing only the male names in which Mary is designated by her husband's name.
Hebrews used the word 'son' in different senses, referring to:
-One generation - example: Solomon was the 'son of' David - Matthew 1:6
-a remote descendant (such as a grandson, great-grandson, etc. - Matthew 1:1; 21:9; 22:42)
-A son-in-law (1 Samuel 24:16; 26:17) *This makes sense in the context that Joseph was the 'son' (son-in-law) of Heli.
-The Levirate marriage law (Deuteronomy 25:5-10; Matthew 22:24-26)
-a step-son who took on the legal status of his step-father (which is what Jesus was to Joseph - Matthew 13:55; Mark 6:3; Luke 3:23; 4:22; John 6:42)
What is here so controversial?
Typical ignorance of how Jews kept their geneology.The Jesus of John and the Jesus of Paul both pre-existed in heaven with God, both created the material universe (regardless of Genesis 1), and have unidentified parents who are nonetheless able to make them descendants of David.
The Fascinating History of Jewish Genealogy - Family History Zone
This guide takes readers on a captivating journey through the rich history of Jewish genealogy, exploring ancient origins to DNA testing.
familyhistory.zone
None of the Church Fathers had anything to do with Gnosticism.As I have twice tried to make to clear to you, these latter two have qualities found in gnosticism ─ pre-existing in heaven and creating the material universe, and also being representatives of a remote God who can only be reached via an intermediary, Jesus. Gnosticism is not mentioned in the texts. The traits of gnosticism are.
Per most of the top scholars who've spent time defining Gnosticism — like Karen King and Michael Williams (Rethinking 'Gnosticism'):
-probably the defining characteristic of Gnosticism is the belief that the world was not created by the true God, but by a deceiving demiurge.
This bears utterly no relation to any historic views considered to be even remotely representative of the Early Church.
No relation - none - zero!
Where should i start ? With Mark , Luke or Matthew?But of course that's only true of the gnostics, the Jesus of Paul and the Jesus of John. The three synoptic Jesuses make no such claim.