First point ─ With the likely exception of Paul, we don't know who wrote the books of the NT. The gospels were written anonymously and the names were added much later.
You are speaking like you were there.
We know by evidence what is probable and what is improbable.
Based on that,we know that the names qualify to be probable.
I don't want to waste my time , i can write something if you are interested to hear.
Second point ─ As Paul says, everything he tells you about Jesus comes out of his own head (Galatians 1:11-12).
Nono , that is your conclusion.
This is Galatians 1:11-12
"I want you to know, brothers and sisters, that the gospel I preached is not of human origin.I did not receive it from any man, nor was I taught it; rather, I received it by revelation from Jesus Christ."
Your explenation means nothing in discussion.It is biased upfront.
That may not be strictly correct as to various details, but eg he has no interest in a real Jesus
How did you come to that conclusion?
Can you give me an example?
, and his bio of a real Jesus is very brief
This is irrelevant.You work with what you have in History , Absence of evidence is not evidence of absence.
but in a piecemeal fashion contains the bones of the gospel of Mark, which is the template for Matthew and Luke, and much more loosely for John. Paul never mentions Jesus' parents, but says he was descended from David, so they were at least Jewish.
Each testimony is not the same.
He doesn't have to mention his parents , he didn't know them..
The gnostic elements I mentioned were Paul's claim that Jesus pre-existed in heaven with God, and that Jesus (not God) created the material universe. John's Jesus also has these two qualities. None of the Jesuses of Mark, Matthew or Luke have them.
Paul has nothing to do with gnosticism.
Church tradition and Gnosticism are two separate entities.
Third point ─ Mark is the earliest gospel as such. It was written not earlier than 75 CE
With all due respect , this is b*******.
Ok , if Any of the Gospel is written as considered by academic consensus , why no one mentioned Paul's and Peter's death.With everything that you face as data in the NT , why no one mentioned Paul' and Peter' death as that would have culminated their ministry.We have the death of others , but there is no info about Peter' and Paul' death.If they are written after their death , it will be reasonable for me to have some kind of explenation , at least from Church tradition.We have many information from tradition , but none regarding this issue.
, four decades or so after the traditional date of Jesus' death.
The date is highl improbable , but still there is nothing closer in History.
Mark's Jesus is an ordinary Jewish male until the apocalyptical preacher John the Baptist baptizes him
Mark 14 says otherwise
, at which point the heavens open and God adopts Jesus as his son (cf Psalm 2:7, affirmed Acts 13:33).
Wow , that's literal interpretation.
Jesus claims to be God , in each of the Gospels.
He is not descended from David, and says he doesn't need to be (Mark 12:35-37).
False analogy
Mark 12:35-37
"While Jesus was teaching in the temple courts, he asked, 'Why do the teachers of the law say that the Messiah is the son of David? David himself, speaking by the Holy Spirit, declared:
"The Lord said to my Lord:
'Sit at my right hand
until I put your enemies
under your feet'."
David himself calls him 'Lord.' How then can he be his son?"
What is not clear in "David himself calls him 'Lord'..."?
There is nothing here about the line of David , the emphasys is on 'Lord'.
Fourth point ─ The Jesus of Matthew and the Jesus of Luke are each said to be born of a virgin. I find reasonable the idea that the author of Matthew read the OT via the Septuagint, and thus found the claim in Isaiah 7:14 that a "virgin" (Greek, parthenos) conceived and bore a child. (Of course, if you actually read that part of Isaiah, you find that parthenos translates Hebrew 'alma, which simply means 'young woman' and who in Isaiah bears the child so mentioned, who regardless has performed his small part in the plot and gone by the end of Isaiah 8. This nonsense is further compounded by two absurd and irreconcilable "genealogies" of Jesus, both for Joseph, who in these two versions is categorically NOT the father of Jesus.
I have already dicussed this with another member.
The translation of the words is not the same through time.The meaning of the words change.
In first century it means a young woman of marriageable age(It was assumed that such girls would be sexually pure, and that soon became part of the word's definition)
They are different languages.
Fifth point ─ the Jesus of John is, like Paul's Jesus, and unlike the three synoptic Jesuses, a being who pre-existed in heaven with God, and, Genesis notwithstanding, created the material universe.
I have already answered this , i can only explain the verses in the Gospels , nothing else.
So there you have it, three distinct models of Jesus spread across five versions of Jesus, the only vaguely credible one being that of Mark.
I don't see that i am sorry.
It has nothing to do with my belief , it has to do with the fact that there is evidence in each Gospel.
It seems to me that you eon't use transitivity when speaking about the Gospels.
Why the literal reading?
No, that "I am" is found only in John 9:58
No it is in Mark 14 also.
─ and if you read John 9 with ordinary diligence, you'll see that Jesus is making plain that he's the envoy of God.
Jesus spoke in parables.
As John's Jesus, like Paul's, but not like the synoptic Jesuses, pre-existed in heaven with God and created the material universe, those two Jesuses are the only two of the five who can make a claim to have existed before Abraham.
Why do we not switch to the synoptic Gospels for change?
Where should i start ? Mark , Matthew or Luke?
The question was whether you need to be descended from David to be the messiah.
Orthodox Judaism views have generally held that the Messiah will be a patrilineal descendant of King David, and will gather the Jews back into the Land of Israel
Thus Paul, Matthew, Luke and John all mention that their Jesuses are descended from David ie are qualified to be messiahs. Mark's says, I ain't and yer don't.
The verse in Mark has nothing to do with the Messiah descended from the line of King David.
Feel free to substitute your preferred verb for God's making the Mary of Matthew and the Mary of Luke pregnant. This is the point at which those Jesuses must have received God's Y-chromosome ─ otherwise she's be Jesa.
I don't know how that happend.
It says it is a miracle.
So that means it is not the natural way.
So you agree it's a tale, it couldn't happen in reality.
I don't know that.
There are man(y things that we don't know.
That doesn't make those two Jesuses of the bloodline of David.
I have explained the geneologies of Mary and Joseph as both would be of the line of David.