Because they never were.
At any rate, where is the doctrine of inherited damnation for Adam's sin found in the OT?
Hmmmm.
Why should it be specifically stated, I asked. You didn't answer, so am I correct in assuming that you would agree, there is no valid reason it should be?
They were supposed to have offspring. God knew this. He had no reason to tell them every detail about their sin.
For example, he did not tell them that they would become wrinkly and feeble, before they died.
(Genesis 3:20) After this
Adam named his wife Eve, because she was to become the mother of everyone living.
(Genesis 4:1) Now
Adam had sexual relations with his wife Eve, and she became pregnant.. . .
All of what was needed to be known at that time was revealed, and later, important details about the Messiah, were revealed to those who would benefit from that information
Those who read it as it is written, come away with an understanding of the clearly revealed message.
It's not expected that one should pick up the Bible and read every detail
they want to see.
Does it not seem obvious that would come from a mind of a skeptic perhaps looking for something to be critical of?