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'Man was created in the image of G-d'

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
I apologize for not understanding your point. At least I am one of those who think you are correct regarding the early belief in Jesus as a creator (but in the context of him being directed to assist in creation by the Lord God)




Clear
εισεειδρω

I think we agree, actually. Jesus was the 'reflection' of God the Father, because, in man form, He is a 'man'....he's part man. He didn't 'exist' in that form before Abraham, we know that, because He even has a mother, Mary. We are left to understand what He meant. The only way Jesus was 'before' Abraham is in, as you seem to be saying, authority, however, the 'man' aspect of Jesus isn't before Abraham in authority, that doesn't make sense, unless we are to assume Jesus as a complete religious fanatic in rebellion against His own beliefs, and that isn't my belief, it isn't the belief of most Christians I know, either. We are left with the 'result' that because Jesus is of The Spirit /God, He is speaking in authority, but technically God was before all, I actually take this statement as more literal than descriptive, as in 'God (whom Jesus is representing), was before Abraham'.
I don't believe Jesus's message is to claim 'authority' over righteous teachers in the faith.
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
post one of three

1)
Ingledsva said : regarding “ginomai” : “ The base word has many meaning - including - become, fulfill, ordained, require, etc.”

You are busted yet again. As I told you, it is better to simply admit a mistake rather than to try to cover it up. Do you think that a person like you, who does not even read greek, can, by looking up greek nouns and verbs be qualified to “translate greek”? Really? ASK SOMEONE WHO ACTUALLY READS GREEK TO HELP YOU ON THIS INGLEDSVA.

The Greek word “ginomai” does not mean “ordained”. By itself, it cannot mean ordained. It is a primary verb. (I’ll explain further down)



2)Ingledsva said : In John 1:15 the tense is (gegonen). Second perfect active indicative of ginomai. It is already an actual fact when the Baptist is speaking. Ordained does fit here.

Your logic makes no sense. You indicate that because γεγονεν is past tense, therefor “ordained” fits. ASK A TRANSLATOR OR SOMEONE WHO READS GREEK TO HELP YOU.

You MUST have a noun or verb that indicates “ordain” is the context for γεγονεν, before "ordained" can “fit”. You do not have such a verb anywhere in your phrase in John 1:15 in the Greek text. This is the reason Acts 1:22 you quoted from the 1611 version was corrected in the modern version of the KJV ( New authorized KJV -1979) and the Corrected ("new") Authorized King James no longer uses the word "ordained" in Acts 1:22. It now uses "Become".




3) The “New King James Version” (NKJV) (or Revised Authorized version) corrects the mistranslation in the original 1611 rendition (which you quoted).

Notice, Acts 1:22 in the corrected King James (1979) reads :
“…beginning from the baptism of John to that day when He was taken up from us, one of these must become a witness with us of His resurrection.” (Acts 1:22 NKJV – corrected)

It no longer includes "ordained" because the prior translation was incorrect. Thus it "corrected" the prior version. It "corrected" the prior version from 1611 a.d. because, Γενεσθαι, in this sentence, means “to become”. It does not mean "ordained". It does not, nor can it, alone, mean “ordain” - EVER.

There were approximately 130 translators/theologians who worked on corrections and improvements in the New Authorized King James changed this sentence. The consensus of these translator/theologians was that there is no verb for “ordained” in this sentence. I don't know any way to make this more clear. Ingledsva, ASK SOMEONE WHO READS GREEK TO HELP YOU .

Below is the phrase from GNT-4. From John 1:15. Find the verb “ordain” in this sentence.
Ουτος ην ον ειπον ο οπισω ερχομενος εμπροσθεν μου γεγονεν οτι πρωτος μου ην. (N-A Gk Jn 1:15)
You cannot do it because there isn’t one.



4
) DO ANY GREEK READERS ON THE FORUM SEE ANY VERB FOR “ORDAINED” IN THE GREEK ABOVE?

ANYONE?

ANY VERB AT ALL THAT MEANS “ORDAINED”.

A N Y O N E ???

Bueller?



5)Ginomai is a primary Greek verb.

It must have another verb or another noun, either textual or implied in order to have contextual meaning. Ginomai’s base meaning is “to become”. Though it indicates a change of status, it cannot, alone, tell us what the change of status is. If I say "I became." It doesn't tell you WHAT I became. The verb requires some other context to refer TO.

Perhaps I "became" a doctor. Perhaps I "became" a pilot. Perhaps I "became" a witness for Jesus' resurrection. However, the specific verb that indicates I "became" a pilot, does not mean I was "ordained" in the act of becoming a pilot. The word "ordained" is an additional concept that does not exist in the base word ginomai OR γενεσθαι in acts 1:22 in the KJV of 1611 a.d.. It was a mistake that was corrected in the KJV of 1979 a.d.

Please, ingledsva, before you simply embarrass yourself further, or waste yet more posts with this very, very, simple issue, Have someone who speaks greek, or a translator, help you with this concept. Pick someone you trust so you can be confident in their opinion.

If you know anyone who speaks greek that you trust, ASK them to explain this to you rather than arguing about something you do not understand or wasting multiple posts only to find you are still incorrect on this specific point and are only embarrassed further and have, again, wasted a lot of time in yet another petty argument on the forum.



6) Ingledsva said : “To see ginomai used as "ordained" in another tense - see Acts 1:22.
(KJV) Beginning from the baptism of John, unto that same day that he was taken up from us, must one be ordained to be a witness with us of his resurrection.
It should be pretty obvious by now that just because the current "accepted" "translation" says one thing, - that does not mean it is the only translation, or even necessarily a correct translation.
“

The reason the New King James corrected the original 1611 translation is because there is NO auxillary verb for “ordained” in this sentence. There never was. It doesn't mean "ordained".
And, there isn’t any verb for “ordained” in any known greek variant among the thousands of greek variants. Find one and quote it to us. You cannot do it. ASK A FRIEND WHO SPEAKS GREEK TO EXPLAIN THIS TO YOU.

post two of three follows
 
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Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
post two of three


7)IF YOU ARE SO KEEN ON SHOWING OFF TO THE FORUM HOW WELL YOU “TRANSLATE GREEK”, THEN LETS DISCUSS ISSUES OF TRANSLATION IN FRONT OF FORUM MEMBERS.

The example verse in the KJV that rendered γενεσθαι as “be ordained” is from Acts 1:22 and it is from the 1611 a.d. KJV (since the later version released in 1979 a.d. corrects this error, having gotten rid of "ordained", the KJV now says “must become”. Below is the Greek New Testament (GNT-4 – which is the standard for translators) for Acts 1:22.

Αρξαμενος απο του βαπτισματος Ιωαννου εως της εμερας ης ανελημφθη αφ ημων μαρτυρα της ανασταεως αυτο συν ημιν
γενεσθαι ενα τουτων. (The ONLY known significant greek variant for this sentence in ANY significant manuscript uses αχρι instead of εως)

beginning from the baptism of John until the day on which he was taken up from us — that one of these become (genesthai | γενέσθαι ) with us a witness of his resurrection.” Acts 1:22

γενεσθαι, as a primary verb (to become), must refer to another verb or noun in order to make sense.

FORUM Readers : Try to figure out what other noun or verb it is what one "becomes".... Since a "WITNESS" is THE ONLY NOUN in this phrase to which γενεσθαι "to become" can refer, then it is the ONLY NOUN that one can become. In this sentence, One Becomes : a witness.

Most New Testament translations use μαρτυρα/”witness” as the thing which one "becomes" If this is trure, then this means that one “becomes a witness”. There is NO noun or verb in this sentence indicating that one "becomes ordained", there is no word for “ordain” to which the γενεσθαι can attach context. If there is ingledsva, FIND IT, and explain it to us if you actually have translational skills and understanding to do so. Let me give you, first, examples of translations that use μαρτυρα as the noun of context for the greek γενεσθαι/become in this sentence.



VERSIONS THAT RENDER
γενεσθαι AS “BECOME” AND USE “WITNESS” /μαρτυρα AS THE NOUN OF CONTEXT

New International Version
beginning from John's baptism to the time when Jesus was taken up from us. For one of these must become a witness with us of his resurrection." (the verb is "become"/γενεσθαι and the noun is "witness"/μαρτυρα. ι.ε. become a witness)

English Standard Version
beginning from the baptism of John until the day when he was taken up from us—one of these men must become with us a witness to his resurrection.” - (the verb is "become"/γενεσθαι and the noun is "witness"/μαρτυρα. ι.ε. become a witness)

New American Standard Bible
beginning with the baptism of John until the day that He was taken up from us-- one of these must become a witness with us of His resurrection." - (the verb is "become"/γενεσθαι and the noun is "witness"/μαρτυρα. ι.ε. become a witness)

Revised King James Bible (1979)
“beginning from the baptism of John to that day when He was taken up from us, one of these must become a witness with us of His resurrection” - (the verb is "become"/γενεσθαι and the noun is "witness"/μαρτυρα. ι.ε. become a witness)

Holman Christian Standard Bible
beginning from the baptism of John until the day He was taken up from us--from among these, it is necessary that one become a witness with us of His resurrection." - (the verb is "become"/γενεσθαι and the noun is "witness"/μαρτυρα. ι.ε. become a witness) noun=witness

International Standard Version
beginning when he was baptized by John until the day he was taken up from us. Therefore, someone like this must become a witness with us to his resurrection." - (the verb is "become"/γενεσθαι and the noun is "witness"/μαρτυρα. ι.ε. become a witness)

NET Bible
beginning from his baptism by John until the day he was taken up from us--one of these must become a witness of his resurrection together with us." - (the verb is "become"/γενεσθαι and the noun is "witness"/μαρτυρα. ι.ε. become a witness)

American Standard Version
beginning from the baptism of John, unto the day that he was received up from us, of these must one become a witness with us of his resurrection. - (the verb is "become"/γενεσθαι and the noun is "witness"/μαρτυρα. ι.ε. become a witness)

English Revised Version
beginning from the baptism of John, unto the day that he was received up from us, of these must one become a witness with us of his resurrection. - (the verb is "become"/γενεσθαι and the noun is "witness"/μαρτυρα. ι.ε. become a witness)

World English Bible
beginning from the baptism of John, to the day that he was received up from us, of these one must become a witness with us of his resurrection." - (the verb is "become"/γενεσθαι and the noun is "witness"/μαρτυρα. ι.ε. become a witness)

Young's Literal Translation
beginning from the baptism of John, unto the day in which he was received up from us, one of these to become with us a witness of his rising again.' (the verb is "become"/γενεσθαι and the noun is "witness"/μαρτυρα. ι.ε. become a witness)


I believe these versions are the most correct rendering for γενεσθαι. If you disagree, Ingledsva, tell the forum why these translations are incorrect.

post three of three follows
 
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Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
post three of three


Now, lets look at other renderings.

Douay-Rheims Bible This bible renders γενεσθαι as “be made” :
Beginning from the baptism of John, until the day wherein he was taken up from us, one of these must be made a witness with us of his resurrection.

I think this rendering reflects the early context of administerium of the Catholic Church at the time in history when Douay-Rheims was created (partly as competition to Luthers wildly popular translation). I also think other greek verbs for “made” would have been used in this sentence instead of "γενεσθαι" if this had been the intent of the original text. Also, contextually, the many other individuals were already witnesses of christs resurrection and many who were witnesses were not “made” or “ordained” to be thus. They simply were there to see the resurrection just as we might witness a car accident. WE are not necessarily MADE witnesses to a car accident, we just happen to be there and "become" witnesses to it in most cases.

However, the underlying sense of becoming part of the 12 special witnesses /apostles αποστελοι in their official status as those who were truly “sent”/αποστολος allows some validity. Still, if this is meant, then the rendering is clumsy and does not fit the typical greek description of “becoming” a witness. Even today, in English, we say “he became a doctor” rather than “he was made a doctor”. Thus, I believe “become” is more correct english than “be made”.

Ingledsva, If you think “be made” is more correct than “become”, why is this a more correct rendering? If you think it is NOT as correct as “become”, then tell us why.



New Living Translation This bible renders γενεσθαι as “will join with us” (using συν ημιν as the contextual “helping verbs”). :
from the time he was baptized by John until the day he was taken from us. Whoever is chosen will join us as a witness of Jesus' resurrection."

I do not think “join with” is at all, a proper rendering for “to become”/γενεσθαι and, for some reason, they are over emphasizing the words “συν ημιν” (with us) and thus, they overemphasize the act of “joining” the group of witnesses rather than emphasizing the concept of actually “becoming” a witness for Jesus and his resurrection.

Whereas, to me, the greek text is actually, emphasizing the act of becoming a witness to the resurrection of Jesus, more than the act of becoming one of a group. This is why I do not think this translation is as correct as those that simply render γενεσθαι as “become”.

Ingledsva, If you think “will join with us is more correct than “become”, why is this a more correct rendering? If you think it is NOT as correct as “become” then tell us why.



Aramaic Bible in Plain English This bible renders γενεσθαι as “would be” :
“Beginning with his baptism by Yohannan, until the day that he was taken up from our presence, would be a witness with us of his Resurrection.”

The greek has no conditional context to γενεσθαι. No “would be”, but rather it is a non-conditional process of “becoming” that the witness is undergoing. It is a firm and actual change of status (γενεσθαι) that is indicated rather than an indication of a conditional (could be or would be) that is indicated by γενεσθαι.

Ingledsva, If you think “would be” is more correct than “become”, why is this a more correct rendering? If you think it is NOT as correct as “become”, then tell us why.



Darby Bible Translation this bible renders γενεσθαι as “should be” :
beginning from the baptism of John until the day in which he was taken up from us, one of these should be a witness with us of his resurrection.
As with the last example, there is no conditional indication of “could be” or “would be” or “should be” in γενεσθαι in my opinion.

Ingledsva, If you think “should be” is more correct than become, why is this a more correct rendering? If you think it is NOT as correct as “become”, then tell us why.



Jubilee Bible 2000 This bible agrees with your claim and renders γενεσθαι as “must be ordained to be” :
beginning from the baptism of John unto that same day that he was received on high from among us, that one must be ordained to be a witness with us of his resurrection.

First, there is no verb for “ordained” in the greek, it is only the bias of the translator that can add this concept to the text. The same principle exists for the addition of “must be”.
There is no indication of “must be” in the greek and this is an addition by the translator. Γενεσθαι means “to become” and does not mean “must become”.

This is a good example of how translators allow their own bias and imaginings to affect what they think is happening in a text and thus describe their own concepts rather than the text itself. (we all do this from time to time).

Ingledsva, If you think “must be ordained to be” is more correct than “become”, why is this a more correct rendering. If you think it is NOT as correct as “become”, then tell us why.



Weymouth New Testament This bible renders γενεσθαι as “should be appointed to become” :
beginning from His baptism by John down to the day on which He was taken up again from us into Heaven--one should be appointed to become a witness with us as to His resurrection."

This is a terrible case of a translator who is adding multiple concepts that are not there. The single word γενεσθαι simply means “to become” and the addition of “should be” is simply not in the greek text but is an improper addition.

The word for “Appointed” is also NOT in the greek text, but is added by a process similar to how “ordained” was added. The translator has, in his mind, a bias or idea as to how someone “becomes a witness” and simply places THAT concept into the text, rather than simply reading the text and translating it. This is a spurious emendation.

Ingledsva, If you think “should be appointed to become” is more correct than “Become”, tell us why. If you think this is NOT as correct as “become”, then tell us why.




1611 King James New Testament
Beginning from the baptism of John, unto that same day that he was taken up from us, must one be ordained to be a witness with us of his resurrection.

First, there is no imperative “must” inside the greek text, but instead the imaginings of whether one IS, or SHOULD BE, or WOULD BE, or SHOULD BE APPOINTED TO, etc. exists within the bias of the individual translator. I think this specific bias comes from later verses when two “candidates” for special witnesses are εστησαν in vs 23, are “chosen”/εξελεξωand Matthias was “enrolled with” the other eleven as special witnesses to the resurrection of Jesus.

If these later descriptions do indicate special ordination ultimately occurred (and I would agree with this), the earlier text itself, in vs 22 does not contain “ordination” nor should the translators bias add “ordination” to a base text. I have already explained that there is no noun or verb in this sentence which adds “ordination” to the primary verb γενεσθαι / “to become”.

Ingledsva, If you think “must be one ordained” is more correct than “Become”, tell us why. If you think this is NOT as correct as “become”, then tell us why, rather than simply indicating "someone else did it that way". If you are, as you say, able to "translate the Greek" then demonstrate and discuss how you, "translate the greek".



Please Ingledsva, if you don't have any data or reasoning or logic as to why you think γενεσθαι means "ordained",, please, please, please do not waste our time simply pointing out that the KJV from 1611 a.d. translated it this way or on multiple petty arguments which will only serve to waste our time when the outcome of an arguement against γενεσθαι as "to become" is already obvious and inevitable.

Ingledsva, I honestly wish you a good journey in this life. However, this constant bickering is silly and wasteful.

FIND someone you trust, who can read Greek, and simply ASK THEM to explain this to you...


Clear
εισεακακω
 
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Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
--- FOR Clear ---


LOL! Pages and pages of crap from you about me and my translation - and with this last one I finally know what your problem is - LOL!


You don't know the meanings of "ordain!"


I suggest you look it up in a dictionary.


ORDAIN: Decree - invest - order - establish - enact - to command - declare -determine - establish - to authorize - to order - to arrange, etc.

CLEAR said:
- "Notice, Acts 1:22 in the corrected King James (1979) reads :
“…beginning from the baptism of John to that day when He was taken up from us, one of these must become a witness with us of His resurrection.”

beginning from the baptism of John to that day when He was taken up from us, one of these must be ESTABLISHED a witness with us of His resurrection.”


beginning from the baptism of John to that day when He was taken up from us, one of these must be ORDAINED a witness with us of His resurrection.”


Or decreed - or determined - or authorized - or established - etc - all synonyms of ORDAINED!


And I think you need to read the whole text in context. It says they have 120 men - that could be just like JUDAS - therefore they need to choose wisely and ordain/authorize/establish/declare a replacement.


Act 1:15 And in those days Peter stood up in the midst of the disciples, and said, (the number of names together were about an hundred and twenty,)

Act 1:16 Men and brethren, this scripture must needs have been fulfilled, which the Holy Ghost by the mouth of David spake before concerning Judas,which was guide to them that took Jesus.

Act 1:17 For he was numbered with us, and had obtained part of this ministry.

Act 1:21 Wherefore of these men which have companied with us all the time that the Lord Jesus went in and out among us,

Act 1:22 Beginning from the baptism of John, unto that same day that he was taken up from us, must one be ordained (ordained/authorized/established/declared) to be a witness with us of his resurrection.

Act 1:23 And they appointed two, Joseph called Barsabas, who was surnamed Justus, and Matthias.

Act 1:24 And they prayed, and said, Thou, Lord, which knowest the hearts of all men, shew whether of these two thou hast chosen,

Act 1:25 That he may take part of this ministry and apostleship, from which Judas by transgression fell, that he might go to his own place.

Act 1:26 And they gave forth their lots; and the lot fell upon Matthias; and he was numbered with the eleven apostles.

Apostolic Ministry.

*
 
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Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Disciple :


1) I think we agree, actually. Jesus was the 'reflection' of God the Father, because, in man form, He is a 'man'....he's part man. He didn't 'exist' in that form before Abraham, we know that, because He even has a mother, Mary. - disciple

I agree with you that the early Christians did not believe Jesus was incarnated before he was born of Mary (i.e. He did not exist as a man with a physical body in a prior incarnation). I can’t confirm this point historically, because I’ve not read regarding this specific point in early Christian literature, but I think you are correct on this point.



2) The only way Jesus was 'before' Abraham is in, as you seem to be saying, authority, however, the 'man' aspect of Jesus isn't before Abraham in authority, that doesn't make sense, unless we are to assume Jesus as a complete religious fanatic in rebellion against His own beliefs, and that isn't my belief, it isn't the belief of most Christians I know, either. - disciple

Though I honestly am not familiar with many of the varied beliefs of “most [modern] Christians”, because my interest is in the earliest authentic Judeo-Christian traditions rather than the myriads of modern theories. Still, I believe the early Christians viewed the man Jesus as having more authority and power and a greater calling and purpose than Abraham at any phase of Jesus’ existence, whether it was Jesus existing as a spirit before Jesus was born into a body, or Jesus during his mortal existence or a Jesus after his mortal existence, his death and his resurrection by his Father.




3) We are left with the 'result' that because Jesus is of The Spirit /God, He is speaking in authority, but technically God was before all, I actually take this statement as more literal than descriptive, as in 'God (whom Jesus is representing), was before Abraham'. - disciple

I can’t be sure that I understand you on this point, but I believe the NT text does describe Jesus saying that he, himself was Abrahams superior, rather than that he was the same as the Lord God, (Since the Lord God was Jesus’ superior, and the Lord God was the superior of all other beings). That is, Jesus does not send himself, but is sent by the Father. Jesus does not have inherent authority, but acts under the authority and direction of his Father. Jesus never directs or commands the Father, but rather The Father directs and commands the Son to execute the Fathers' will.

Since we are speaking so much about "authority" and "hierarchy", can I simply note that I would also agree with anyone who notes that Jesus’ comments in John 8:59 alluded to both a temporal context (which explains his interviewers confusion as to how Jesus could have seen Abraham yet been born after Abraham….) AND as a reference to Jesus as Abraham’s superior (which explains their anger at Jesus claim to be greater than their patriarch Abraham).



4) I don't believe Jesus's message is to claim 'authority' over righteous teachers in the faith.

You are probably correct on this point since Jesus’ central message seemed to center upon the theme of salvation, rather than hierarchy and authority per se. Yet, inherent in his miracles and his ability to forgive sin and to heal was the recognition that he had more ‘authority’ than Abraham (if we are still speaking in the context of John 8:59).

If Jesus was THE awaited prophet, THE Christ, THE redeemer of mankind, then, inside of that context, the early Christians would also have recognized that the Redeemer would have inherently had more authority than all other “teachers in the faith”. Such authority was part and parcel of the qualities of being “the Son of God; the Redeemer of Mankind; the right hand of God; the Logos, etc.

In any case disciple, I wish you the best of luck and clarity in coming to your own convictions as to what such things mean and how they are best understood.


Clear

εισεφισε
 
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Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
1) Ingledsva complained : Pages and pages of crap from you about me and my translation–

The reason your “re-translation” of John 1:15 is such an issue is because you made this mistranslation after having made unusual claims to competency in greek. You claimed :
I also translate the Hebrew and the Greek. My interest is the ancient spread of language, philosophy, and religion.
- #1360
You made this public claim and yet you cannot “translate the greek” other than to look up base dictionary definitions and then cut and paste them as any other neophyte can do. When pressed for credibility, you claim objectivity and knowledge you do not have, saying :
I am arguing from what the actual Hebrew and Greek texts of the Bible say
. #139
And yet you frequently do not even know what the greek texts mean in their correct historical context.

Since YOU made these claims, I understand the discomfort it causes when I refer to your inability to either understand and translate koine greek, and your repeated referrals to incorrect greek interpretations. If you are embarrassed, then you should take some personal responsibility for your own fiasco. I gave you GOOD counsel in telling you to FIND SOMEONE YOU TRUST WHO CAN READ GREEK AND HAVE THEM EXPLAIN THIS TO YOU.

Forum members have already seen that you are unable to enter into any depth of discussion on greek translation in any forum post you’ve made regarding Greek. They already have seen that your ability to "translate Greek" is limited to English discussions of dictionary “lookups” and they have already seen that your historical contexts are very, very, frequently incorrect.

You claimed to be able to “translate the Hebrew and the Greek” and to be “arguing from what actual Hebrew and Greek texts of the Bible say”. When these claims crumble in a public forum, in front of other forum members who need to be able to trust you, you cannot then blame me for exposing these inflated claims.

I was never your enemy. You were your own worst enemy by trying to create a false facade of credibility. It was simply a matter of time before someone asked you to use these talents you claimed you had.

In post # 163, I have given you 11 examples of the use of ginomai (rendered “become”) in John 1:15, from English translations that you are perfectly welcome to dispute. You've given the forum "O", zip, nada examples of "ginomai" correctly translated as "ordained".

If you disagree with biblical translators, tell us WHY these translators are incorrect in their rendering. Otherwise, get off your high horse and admit you simply don’t know greek beyond cutting and pasting from dictionaries (it’s actually quite apparent from your posts anyway…)


In post # 164 I have you 7 examples of the use of ginomai that I disputed the translations of. I gave you examples of the types of comments you could make to dispute the greek usage.

It’s not as though you don’t have a basic model to follow in a discussion of greek. However, even given hints and examples and models to follow, you are still unable to discuss either koine greek or consistently use it in a proper historical context.




2) If you have somehow discovered that I “…don't know the meanings of "ordain" then it is also true that forum members have discovered you can’t even read koine greek or translate it as you claim.

The credibility issues this raises for forum members when they read your posts is significant. THIS is why I suggested you simply admit that you “made an error” in your initial claim, and then continue with your discussion, rather than to try to find a way to save face through further argument.

I would sincerely be, very, very interested to learn something about historically contexted ordination
that I do not know from ANYONE, (including you) IF I felt that you actually knew something significant about historical ordination and greek that goes beyond cutting and pasting from a greek dictionary.

However, your credibility on this specific point is so low that I have little faith that you actually know some historical point about ordination, but rather that you simply want to use a discussion about ordination as a ruse to take our attention away from your silly claim that : “ginomai” means “ordained”. Whatever you were going to say "ordination" means, it will remain true that "ginomai" was never used for it. If we argue another 20 posts, we will still end up with this basic truth. All of our arguments have, so far, followed this pattern. Your incorrect claims have never become correct regardless of how many posts we waste in petty arguments. ASK someone you trust who reads greek, to help you; to explain to you WHY "ginomai" can never, alone, mean "ordained"


3) Ingledsva
, There is NO shame in simply admitting an error. Arguing, when others have already seen and already recognized the obvious error, often merely compounds and complicates a situation when one tries to cover it up. Also, claiming that we have more talents and knowledge than we really have is quite dangerous. Obviously you now realize that, at some point, someone will want us to use these non-existent talents we claim we have.

In any case, I hope your life becomes full of authentic and real satisfactions and joy in your journey in this life.


Clear
εισιφισεω
 
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Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
1) Ingledsva complained : Pages and pages of crap from you about me and my translation–

The reason your “re-translation” of John 1:15 is such an issue is because you made this mistranslation after having made unusual claims to competency in greek. You claimed :
I also translate the Hebrew and the Greek. My interest is the ancient spread of language, philosophy, and religion.
- #1360
You made this public claim and yet you cannot “translate the greek” other than to look up base dictionary definitions and then cut and paste them as any other neophyte can do. When pressed for credibility, you claim objectivity and knowledge you do not have, saying :
I am arguing from what the actual Hebrew and Greek texts of the Bible say
. #139
And yet you frequently do not even know what the greek texts mean in their correct historical context.

Since YOU made these claims, I understand the discomfort it causes when I refer to your inability to either understand and translate koine greek, and your repeated referrals to incorrect greek interpretations. If you are embarrassed, then you should take some personal responsibility for your own fiasco. I gave you GOOD counsel in telling you to FIND SOMEONE YOU TRUST WHO CAN READ GREEK AND HAVE THEM EXPLAIN THIS TO YOU.

Forum members have already seen that you are unable to enter into any depth of discussion on greek translation in any forum post you’ve made regarding Greek. They already have seen that your ability to "translate Greek" is limited to English discussions of dictionary “lookups” and they have already seen that your historical contexts are very, very, frequently incorrect.

You claimed to be able to “translate the Hebrew and the Greek” and to be “arguing from what actual Hebrew and Greek texts of the Bible say”. When these claim crumble in a public forum, in front of other forum members who need to be able to trust you, you cannot then blame me for exposing these inflated claims.

I was never your enemy. You were your own worst enemy by trying to create a false facade of credibility. It was simply a matter of time before someone asked you to use these talents you claimed you had.

In post # 163, I have given you 11 examples of the use of ginomai (rendered “become”) in John 1:15, from English translations that you are perfectly welcome to dispute. You've given the forum "O", zip, nada examples of "ginomai" correctly translated as "ordained".

If you disagree with biblical translators, tell us WHY these translators are incorrect in their rendering. Otherwise, get off your high horse and admit you simply don’t know greek beyond cutting and pasting from dictionaries (it’s actually quite apparent from your posts anyway…)


In post # 164 I have you 7 examples of the use of ginomai that I disputed the translations of. I gave you examples of the types of comments you could make to dispute the greek usage.

It’s not as though you don’t have a basic model to follow in a discussion of greek. However, even given hints and examples and models to follow, you are still unable to discuss either koine greek or consistently use it in a proper historical context.




2) If you have somehow discovered that I “…don't know the meanings of "ordain" then it is also true that forum members have discovered you can’t even read koine greek or translate it as you claim.

The credibility issues this raises for forum members when they read your posts is significant. THIS is why I suggested you simply admit that you “made an error” in your initial claim, and then continue with your discussion, rather than to try to find a way to save face through further argument.

I would sincerely be, very, very interested to learn something about historically contexted ordination
that I do not know from ANYONE, (including you) IF I felt that you actually knew something significant about historical ordination and greek that goes beyond cutting and pasting from a greek dictionary.

However, your credibility on this specific point is so low that I have little faith that you actually know some historical point about ordination, but rather that you simply want to use a discussion about ordination as a ruse to take our attention away from your silly claim that : “ginomai” means “ordained”. Whatever you were going to say "ordination" means, it will remain true that "ginomai" was never used for it. If we argue another 20 posts, we will still end up with this basic truth. All of our arguments have, so far, followed this pattern. Your incorrect claims have never become correct regardless of how many posts we waste in petty arguments. ASK someone you trust who reads greek, to help you; to explain to you WHY "ginomai" can never, alone, mean "ordained"


3) Ingledsva
, There is NO shame in simply admitting an error. Arguing, when others have already seen and already recognized the obvious error, often merely compounds and complicates a situation when one try to cover it up. Also, claiming that we have more talents and knowledge than we really have is quite dangerous. Obviously you now realize that, at some point, someone will want us to use these non-existent talents we claim we have.

In any case, I hope your life becomes full of authentic and real satisfactions and joy in your journey in this life.


Clear
εισιφισεω


Dude - quite trying to change what I actually said. It isn't going to work.


Clear said:
I would sincerely be, very, very interested to learn something about historically contexted ordination[/I] that I do not know from ANYONE, (including you) IF I felt that you actually knew something significant about historical ordination and greek that goes beyond cutting and pasting from a greek dictionary.

However, your credibility on this specific point is so low that I have little faith that you actually know some historical point about ordination,


LOL! Dude, I never used the word to mean a priestly ordination. Which is why I gave you all of those OTHER synonyms for the word. Did you NOTE that priestly ordination was not among them? That is because you OBVIOUSLY were thinking of the word with ONE meaning.

ALSO - you are being dishonest when you claim it is not correct and can't be used as such, - as I showed older translations using it!


You claimed they were changed because they were wrong. That is NOT correct.

You are spouting the same erroneous crap over-and over-and over-ad nauseam!

And repeating does not make it correct!



PS - Ordained is still being used in some Bible translations, and is in most of my older Bibles.



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Desert Snake

Veteran Member
If Jesus was THE awaited prophet, THE Christ, THE redeemer of mankind, then, inside of that context, the early Christians would also have recognized that the Redeemer would have inherently had more authority than all other “teachers in the faith”. Such authority was part and parcel of the qualities of being “the Son of God; the Redeemer of Mankind; the right hand of God; the Logos, etc.

Right, that's why I don't think the statement means that. It's redundant. In a 'real' sense of the Scripture, I don't think it's even being implied. This basically comes down to Old Covenant>New Covenant. We don't have a 'teacher' who said, 'forget everything, etc. etc., ', that is what the non-religionists ascribe to Jesus, actually, they say He was 'refuting' the 'Old religion' etc., when we know He wasn't.
Therefore, the verse, to me, has to imply something else, and that would namely be a Divinity aspect, He may not even be referring to Himself here! It's irrelevant imo to His message to be simply claiming 'authority'.
 

Katzpur

Not your average Mormon
OF COURSE!!
Well then, please do so.


But note that I in no way said anything about this being something physical--which YOU implied.
I know you didn't. The fact remains that an image is the representation of something's physical qualities.




Ever hear of metahpor?
Since my degree is in English, the answer to that question is yes.



The term is clearly used metaphorically here.
No, not clearly. If it were clearly used metaphorically, we wouldn't hold opposite opinions, but would still agree.



LOTS of scripture does this, in case you never noticed the fact.
Of course I've noticed it. I've also noticed that there is always a reason when a word is used metaphorically. In the case of God saying, "Let us create man in our image," no such reason exists. The entire chapter deals with the physical creation of the universe, and about the different life forms being created. It speaks of each species of animal being designed to reproduce "after its kind." In other words, a dog's offspring will always resemble that dog. When God says, "Let us create man in our image," why on earth would He suddenly -- mid-topic -- start speaking metaphorically?
 
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Katzpur

Not your average Mormon
Image

What is 'image'? First, we think of physicality, not essence or personality. An 'image' of someone is their physical aspects, basically. We make idols in the 'image' of some 'god' etc. We create an 'image' to portray the basic physical attribution we are trying to ascribe to something else.
I agree with you as to the definition of the word "image." Certain words can not be used in every context in which we might find it convenient in which to use them. For instance, while it is meaningful to say that a person is spiritually wealthy, it makes no sense to say that he's carrying a wad of spiritual $20 bills. Likewise, there is no such thing as a "spritual image."
 

Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
POST ONE OF TWO

Hi disciple :

I reviewed your posts and think that we are speaking from two different base models that diverge on these discrete speculations (e.g. Jesus' motives). This is why I was confused regarding your description (it simply did not make sense given my base models and personal bias).


DIFFERING BASE MODELS


I grew up in a native Christianity that believed Jesus was also, in some way, God the Father (and the Holy Spirit as well). However, as I entered the historical context of early Judeo-christian texts, I abandoned that base model years ago, else, the early Judeo-Christian texts could never be coherent as a genre (since the base model of these early text assumed a Lord God that was a different individual than Jesus the son.)

I am probably so historically oriented / biased towards such pre-nicene models of the trinity where The Lord God, Jesus and the Holy Spirit are separate individuals, that I am not sure I can speculate very accurately regarding discrete motives of Jesus/God/spirit inside the later models such as the Nicene theory or in any theory where these three are one individual.

Both Christian Models that believe God/Christ/and Holy Spirit are individuals as well as the models that believe all are one individual use similar words and similar biblical texts, but they mean different things to these two different worldviews.


MAN CREATED IN GODS’ “IMAGE”

For example, the OP uses as a premise : “Man was created in the image of G-d.”: “And God made man. According to [the] image of God he made him.” (gen 1:27)
The greek LXX uses the term “εικονα“ (“Icon” in english) for “image” of God.

Koine Greek used this term for actual, physical, visual descriptions of individuals in official documents.
For example in BGU IV. 1059.7, εικονα (icon/image) is used to describe actual visual characteristics of a female slave (ης τα ετη και αι εικονις θποκεινται).
P. Tebt I 32:21 (145 b.c.?) is another example of this same usage as well.
In P Ryl II. 156.33 (approx first century a.d.) it describes multiple individuals and their physical appearance (εικονα).

Early sacred texts use εικονα in an actual, visual context as well.
For example, when Barnabas explained that though “… Moses had commanded, “You shall not have a cast or a carved image for your God, nevertheless he himself made one in order to show them a symbol of Jesus.” (Epistle of Barnabas 12:6), this εικονα / icon or image he speaks of is clearly a visual and physical “image” and not a metaphor.

The point is that “image” in this sense was a word used to describe an actual, real, image and is not metaphorical or symbolic in vernacular usage. I can't think of any single early koine greek example of εικονα that is clearly used in early texts in a metaphorical sense. Can anyone else?

I think modern Christians started to use εικονα metaphorically as a mechanism to try to make the early texts harmonize to their beliefs rather than to harmonize their beliefs to what the texts said. For example :


TWO TYPES OF CHRISTIANITIES - AN EXAMPLE

Consider the way this word must be handled first, by a Christianity that believes God had an image (i.e. an appearance) in Gen 1:27 and a second Christianity that does NOT believe that God had an image in Gen 1:27.

While the first Christian movement may take Genesis 1:27 at it’s “face value” and in it’s "standard vernacular" and in it's obvious meaning . There is no need to change the vernacular definition of the word "image" into a metaphor or to attempt redefine "image" in any way..

The second christian movement that believes God had no icon; no appearance, and no “image” must change, and / or redefine the obvious meaning of the word "image" into a metaphor in order to create coherence and decrease disharmony between the obvious textual implication versus their own base belief on this specific point.

This repeated process of creating metaphors to explain the many similar disagreements between text and belief partially explains the multiplication of theories among Christian movements. In fact, the process of producing different metaphors encourages schisms and splits based on differing metaphors and theories while the Christianity that takes this specific example at face value can use such descriptions in the common vernacular and obvious meaning WITHOUT the same problem of coherence and their inherent coherence and harmony decreases schisms on this specific point (though schisms may occur on other points).

This process of “metaphorizing” texts repeats itself multiple times in multiple ways on multiple points of doctrine, in order to create coherence between text and belief. At some point, such spiritualizing and metaphorizing of the text may become a reflex and a standard refuge to which one finds sheltering explanations for difficult passages. It is however, difficult to make any firm rule regarding what is actual and what is metaphor (since metaphors certainly do exist in early texts…).



EARLY TEXTUAL USEAGE OF EIKONA / IMAGE WERE, USUALLY A VISUAL DESCRIPTION


In the case of Adam being made in the εικονα, icon or "image" of God, it is clear in much of the early sacred texts, this was not a metaphorical doctrine in early Christianity.

For example, an early Christian text describes a clear physical/visual meaning to the use of εικονα . / “image” when

“ God formed Adam with His holy hands
, in His own Image and Likeness and when the angels saw Adam's glorious appearance they were greatly moved by the beauty thereof. For they saw(Fol. 5a, col. 2) the image of his face burning with glorious splendor like the orb of the sun, and the light of his eyes was like the light of the sun, and the image of his body was like unto the sparkling of crystal…. “

Contextual descriptions in such texts are clearly describing an actual visual appearance of Adam before his “fall”.

And the angels and the hosts of heaven heard the Voice of God saying unto him, "Adam, behold; I have made thee king, and priest, and prophet, and lord, and head, and governor of everything which hath been made and created; and they shall be in subjection unto thee) and they shall be thine, and I have given unto thee power over everything which I have created." And when the angels heard this speech they all bowed the knee and worshiped Him. . Cave of Treasures (chapt on Creation of Adam)


POST TWO OF TWO FOLLOWS
 
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Clear

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
POST TWO OF TWO


Such description don’t just use εικονα (or "image") as an indication of visual context, but also forms of greek ομοιωμα (or "likeness") are often also used in such descriptions of Adams’ appearance. Ομοιωμα is distinguished from εικων since it implies an archetype, the “likeness” or “form”.

The great Greek linguist Moulton, uses the example of ομιοωμα, “as one egg is like another” (The eggs are not exactly the same, but so close to the same that one may not tell the difference in his example from OGIS 669.62 (from first century a.d.). This is another “visual” context since, In other, non-visual contexts, one may see ομολογεω used, indicating two individuals simply “agree with” each another (without the indication of a visual “sameness”).

A good example of both words being used in such a context is from the early Christian text Life of Adam and Eve (Vita) 41:2 and 42:1 when Lucifer is describing to Adam, one main reason for his (Lucifers') fall from heaven. Lucifer tells Adam : “…God blew into you the breath of life and your countenance and likeness were made in the image of God….” And “the Lord God said, ‘Behold Adam! I have made you in our image and likeness.” Life of Adam and Eve (Vita) 41:2 and 42:1

These two terms forms of εικονα and ομοιωμα became ingrained not only in texts, but into the oral liturgies and prayers of early Christianity. For example, in one Hellenistic Synagogal Prayer, the prayer reads :

“And the goal of the creative work – the rational living creature, the world citizen – having given order by your Wisdom, you created, saying, “let us make man according to our image and likeness”... 24 But when man was disobedient, You took away his deserved life. 25 You did not make it disappear absolutely, but for a time, 26 having put (him) to sleep for a little (while), by an oath you have called (him forth) to new birth. 27 You have loosed the boundary of death, You who are the Maker of life for the dead, through Jesus Christ, our hope!(aposCon 7.34.1-8)



Such examples often seen in early textual traditions are so obviously and consistently a physical, visual context that one cannot mistake some descriptions for metaphor.

For example from Jewish Haggadah repeats this same theme of physical appearance :

“When Adam opened his eyes the first time, and beheld the world about him, he broke into praise of God, “How great are your works, O Lord!” But his admiration for the world surrounding him did not exceed the admiration all creatures conceived for Adam. They took him to be their creator, and they all came to offer his adoration. But he spoke : “Why do you come to worship me? Nay, you and I together will acknowledge the majesty and the might of him who has created us all. ‘The Lord reigns,’ “ he continued, “‘he is appareled with majesty.’” And not alone the creatures on earth, even the angels thought Adam the lord of all, and they were about to salute him with “Holy, holy, holy, is the Lord of hosts, “ when God caused sleep to fall upon him, and then the angels knew that he was but a human being.” (The Haggadah -Woman)

Whether early traditions are correct or not, still, they did conceive of Adam having the same image (εικονα) and likeness (ομοιωμα) as his creator.

In fact, the most common post c.e. tradition that is common to all three Abrahamic religions (i.e. early Judaism and Christianity AND early Islam) IS the tradition concerning the fall of Lucifer, and it concerns the honoring of Adam, as the image and likeness of God. Though the story/tradition exists in multiple texts common to all three Abrahamic traditions, Christian Vita is a good example of this genre of literature. Satan explained to Adam the motive for Satans’ enmity against Adam and God, saying :

When God blew into you the breath of life and
your countenance and likeness were made in the image of God, Michael brought you and made (us) honor you in the sight of God, and the Lord God said, ‘Behold Adam! I have made you in our image and likeness.’ Ch 14 1 And Michael went out and called all the angels, saying, ‘Honor the image of the LORD God, as the LORD God has instructed. And Michael himself honored [him] first, and called me and said, ‘Honor the image of God, Yahweh. 3 And I answered, ‘I do not worship Adam.’ ...’Why do you compel me? I will not worship one inferior and subsequent to me. I am prior to him in creation; before he was made, I was already made. He ought to honor me.’ (Vita) 12:1-2, 13:13, 14:2-3; 15:1-3; 16:1-3

This very famous and widespread historical tradition has Satan explaining that he not only existed before Adam, but was superior to Adam who “is made of dust” whereas Satan claims he was “made of fire” and claims superiority to Adam. The point is that almost all such traditions are in the context of Adam being made according to an actual visual image and likeness of his Creator, rather than simply a metaphorical image and likeness. Thus early Christian doctrines and traditions differed in this specific point from the later Christian traditions.

I was typing between appointments at work and I just got off. I’m going to quit here disciple. My point is that "image" and "likeness" used in Genesis 1:27 (LXX) were not generally used in any metaphorical sense in any common usage anciently.

Katzpur
– I saw your post but simply ran out of time. Hopefully this post will also apply to your point as well.

See you

Clear
εινεειτω
 
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Desert Snake

Veteran Member
Great stuff!

Incidentally, the OP theorem is more of a argument towards critical thinking about the Genesis wording rather than a declaration that it would be 'Jesus only' as the Creator. Either way, we are left to consider the possibility of 'image' being a literal-type or quasi-literal type meaning.
 

nash8

Da man, when I walk thru!
'Man was created in the image of G-d'.
The G-d that is the likeness of man is Jesus, not an "invisible' god.

Jesus is The Creator G-d.

What I find interesting is that in Genesis, the plural pronoun "our" is used instead of the personal pronoun "my", indicating more than one God. I also read another post on this forum that states that the original word "Elohim" also has plural forms as well. This would indicate that there was more than one God that created man, no?
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
I think it's plural. There seems to be some debate. It might mean Angelic, as in 'God & the angels'.
From looking at terms used for deity, I would go with the Angelic host interpretation.
 
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Katzpur

Not your average Mormon
What I find interesting is that in Genesis, the plural pronoun "our" is used instead of the personal pronoun "my", indicating more than one God. I also read another post on this forum that states that the original word "Elohim" also has plural forms as well. This would indicate that there was more than one God that created man, no?
Genesis 1:26-27 says, "And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth. So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them." How about the possibility that male and female humans were created in the image of God and an unnamed female counterpart? If He had been speaking to another deity about the creation of both males and females, this would make sense (whether you believe it to be the case or not).
 

Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
What I find interesting is that in Genesis, the plural pronoun "our" is used instead of the personal pronoun "my", indicating more than one God. I also read another post on this forum that states that the original word "Elohim" also has plural forms as well. This would indicate that there was more than one God that created man, no?



God and Goddess in union creating. :)


Bible tells us the people kept turning back to her, and even at one point, said they were better off with her.


Jer 7:17 Seest thou not what they do in the cities of Judah and in the streets of Jerusalem?

Jer 7:18 The children gather wood, and the fathers kindle the fire, and the women knead their dough, to make cakes to the Queen of Heaven, and to pour out drink offerings unto other gods, that they may provoke me to anger.


Jer 44:17 But we will certainly do whatsoever thing goeth forth out of our own mouth, to burn incense unto the Queen of Heaven, and to pour out drink offerings unto her, as we have done, we, and our fathers, our kings, and our princes, in the cities of Judah, and in the streets of Jerusalem: for then had we plenty of victuals, and were well, and saw no evil.

Jer 44:18 But since we left off to burn incense to the Queen of Heaven, and to pour out drink offerings unto her, we have wanted all things, and have been consumed by the sword and by the famine.



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