Are you sure about that? How do you know it wasn't the will of the majority that caused the changes to begin with, regardless of the existence of public protest..? Because there's a long list of protests throughout history, and the end results seem random in comparison to the existence of the protest itself.
...Maybe will of the majority is all that's ever mattered? And protests are just 'side things' on their own.
Uses you can actually prove that protests are actually effective in changing public opinion in their favor?
There's great drive to justify rioting, vandalism, looting, & arson
over & above mere protesting. It's the "by any means necessary"
philosophy. I disagree that it's appropriate in modern Ameristan.
But if they do argue that violent protests are useful, protestors
enduring violence from authority was part of that in Ameristan
(& famously in India). By their reasoning, suffering is essential
to the process. The protests would fail if protester violence
went unanswered in kind. I don't like that either.