Hmm.. the Quran only says God created two waters that don't mix. Looking around we find that there are examples that it is true, and the example I gave was the river and see meeting but neither the river becomes salt nor the see becomes fresh. The Quran did not give examples at all, it just mentioned that such a thing was created. It in not like fresh and salt waters never mix. Taking that verse as a general rule that some waters never mix is wrong and contradicts with the meaning of the verse.
Rivers are not single objects but an identification of many objects, water molecules along with other elements and chemicals. Brackish water is salt water which is found in estuaries since by definition it is salt water. Now it may not have the same level of salt water in an ocean but is still salt water. Water which is not salt water, has no salt in it at all, is fresh water. Since rivers flow it is the fresh water flowing into salt water. The brackish water is the mixing of fresh water bodies flowing into salt water bodies. Since currents along with other mechanics such as wind and gravity, continue to move the fresh water further into the salt water body. The fresh water mixes with the salt water further and further from brackish to salinity found in ocean layers. Salt molecules are diluted into the fresh water turning it to salt water. Thus there is no barrier but a point of mixing. Barrier is the wrong word to use thus is in error. The word used,transgress, is wrong as well since we see the opposite the verse is false. The Quran gave a fine example which can be applied to rivers, seas, oceans, lakes, etc. Surah 25:53 Salt water and fresh water. So the verse is plainly in error.
The Dead Sea is a body of salt water yet has a fresh water source. If water did not mix there would be an increasing area of fresh water. More so the size of the Dead Sea would increase, overflow its banks completely to encompass more and more of the Jordan river valley. However this is not the case as fresh water mixes with the salt water. Also there is evaporation with leaves salt behind. So due to the above mixing and evaporation we can conclude salt is soluble in water, experiments at home can confirm both.
The polarity between salt and water will well known and is common middle-school science
1. The polarity of water molecules enables water to dissolve many ionically bonded substances
2. Salt (sodium chloride) is made from positive sodium ions bonded to negative chloride ions
3. Water can dissolve salt because the positive part of water molecules attracts the negative chloride ions and the negative part of water molecules attracts the positive sodium ions.
4. The amount of a substance that can dissolve in a liquid (at a particular temperature) is called the solubility of the substance
5. The substance being dissolved is called the solute, and the substance doing the dissolving is called the solvent.
But either ways, Aristotle talked about it first, so this argument is void to the OP'er and me. Hence even if it is wrong or right, it lost its value. Of course the OP'er will have to confirm that Aristotle really did say it first. For now I personally think it was related to him from other sources, but that's just me.
It shows that this incorrect knowledge was already present for centuries before the Quran and widely available due to Hellenization and Romanization. Since this knowledge was repeated in the Quran it is not divine as a divine being would not be in error. Thus in this case the verse was learned, repeated in error and assumed divine due to the presupposition based ideology.
Very well said.
You said most, while he said everyone was illiterate. You're in my favor proving him wrong. I appreciate your support.
Just pointing out the conflict between modern views and past views. Many ideas of the past were completely normal and acceptable which we find absurd or objectionable in the present.