1robin
Christian/Baptist
Can you disprove it?
It was your claim not mine that means you have the buren of proof not me.
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Can you disprove it?
How do we know the Council itself wasn't aliens sent to confuse us. Just kidding, You could and people have examined the character of what they rejected or accepted and if there was merit in your assertion it would have been found long ago. Let me ask you something. I can't find what the reason was that you launched this line of discussion. If you can tell what the conclusion from your point of view is then maybe I can respond more effectivly and accurately.If that's the case, you should consider the Apocrypha canonical, as they weren't rejected until the Dark age, several centuries after the Dead Sea Scrolls.
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And how did they determine which writings carried that authority? Why did so many churches disagree as to which writings carried authority until the Romans settled the question centuries later? Why did the Sinaiticus contain Shepherd of Hermas?
And how do we know that the Council itself wasn't deviating from what the Apostles originally taught? How do we know they weren't accepting clearly pseudipigraphical works like Timothy, Titus, Ephesians and Hebrews for their own anti-Judaizing agenda?
hi guys im a new believer in our saviour jesus christ and god, creator of heaven & earth.
so my question is which religion is the correct one?
christianity
jehovas whitness
catholic
any help or guidance would be apprechiated.
ric.
None of them.
We know what causes religious experiences. Belief and the brains' God Spot and With God in MindI would love to hear how you know this. Since religion often frustrates philosophers for the reason that it cannot be falseified and therefore disproven. I have had the spiritual experince of what Jesus describes in John 3:1-21 which atleast to me verifies the core premise of Christianity. Unless you believe I am lying what would your counterpoint to this be?
Good gracious, I will hand it to non-believers, they can convince themselves of anything no matter how rediculous to avoid God. They will swallow a camel and then choke on a gnat. This pseudopsychology takes more faith than Christianity does. Anyway even if ever believer in every faith is found to be mistaken that still doesn't dissprove that a God exists so your statement is still incorrect. Can you tell me how this God spot idea accounts for documented miracles, my salvation experience which completely removed my desire for sinful habits I had unsuccessfully fought for years, the willingness of the desciples who would have known Christianity was false to live a selfles life of servitude and die for this lie.? How does it produce hundreds of unambigous detailed prophesys that come true with 100% accuracy years later (unlike Nostradomas or any other prophet want to be).We know what causes religious experiences. Belief and the brains' God Spot and With God in Mind
Non-believers not only avoid God but also Allah or Brahman or any other god. Just like Christians have convinced themselves that no other god exists.Good gracious, I will hand it to non-believers, they can convince themselves of anything no matter how rediculous to avoid God.
Actually the field is called neurotheology and has been around for decades. The research is coming along quite nicely.They will swallow a camel and then choke on a gnat. This pseudopsychology takes more faith than Christianity does.
What statement?Anyway even if ever believer in every faith is found to be mistaken that still doesn't dissprove that a God exists so your statement is still incorrect.
Because which god you attribute the "miracle" to just depends on where you live. "One of the underlying popular tenets of Hinduism is the acceptance of miracles. Most Hindus believe that direct appeal for aid from a Deity often results in divine intervention. The Gods and Goddesses are approachable and, when properly beseeched, will change the course of events. Prayers for intercession may be made to any Deity, the choice entirely dependent upon the beliefs and inclinations of the devotee." Hindu miraclesCan you tell me how this God spot idea accounts for documented miracles,
You don't think atheists or believers in other gods also have life-changing experiences? If you had been a Hindu you would just have attributed that change to whichever Hindu god you believed in.my salvation experience which completely removed my desire for sinful habits I had unsuccessfully fought for years,
Why are Muslim suicide bombers willing to die for their cause? Does that prove that the Quran is true or that Allah exists?the willingness of the desciples who would have known Christianity was false to live a selfles life of servitude and die for this lie.?
ProphecyHow does it produce hundreds of unambigous detailed prophesys that come true with 100% accuracy years later (unlike Nostradomas or any other prophet want to be).
But I don't have to resort to fringe psychology or incorrect papers on prophesy to make the case.Non-believers not only avoid God but also Allah or Brahman or any other god. Just like Christians have convinced themselves that no other god exists.
So miracles do exist it is just a question of the cause. Since a miracle posits a supernatural force then your position is ruled out but mine is still kicking.Actually the field is called neurotheology and has been around for decades. The research is coming along quite nicely.What statement?Because which god you attribute the "miracle" to just depends on where you live. "One of the underlying popular tenets of Hinduism is the acceptance of miracles. Most Hindus believe that direct appeal for aid from a Deity often results in divine intervention. The Gods and Goddesses are approachable and, when properly beseeched, will change the course of events. Prayers for intercession may be made to any Deity, the choice entirely dependent upon the beliefs and inclinations of the devotee."
There is no other religion that guarantees or requires a personal experience with God. This experience contains aspects that any natural cause or other religion could not reasonably account for. I am not refering to some epifany, in my case it was unlike by a wide margin anything else I have ever experienced, occured at the time I accepted Christ and conformed to the description contained in the bible which I was not familiar with at the time. Either I am lying or your explanations do not account for my experience but the bible does perfectly. Since I have already have covered this I will leave it here.You don't think atheists or believers in other gods also have life-changing experiences?
You are presupposeing they had an experience of the same nature as mine or any born again Christian.If you had been a Hindu you would just have attributed that change to whichever Hindu god you believed in.
It is not a rare thing to find people that are willing to die to kill or damage their enemy. It is extremely rare that Christians have willlingly laid down their life without attempting vengence on their opressor. Christianity has a long tradition of doing this In fact a roman governour was sent to kill any jew who would not sware allegence to the deity of the ceaser. He wrote back that if he wasn't given a different approach he would virtually wipe out the the Jewish nation because they would not submit nor were these people fighting back.Why are Muslim suicide bombers willing to die for their cause? Does that prove that the Quran is true or that Allah exists
I would love to hear how you know this. Since religion often frustrates philosophers for the reason that it cannot be falseified and therefore disproven. I have had the spiritual experince of what Jesus describes in John 3:1-21 which atleast to me verifies the core premise of Christianity. Unless you believe I am lying what would your counterpoint to this be?
hi guys im a new believer in our saviour jesus christ and god, creator of heaven & earth.
so my question is which religion is the correct one?
christianity
jehovas whitness
catholic
any help or guidance would be apprechiated.
ric.
Nonetheless, whatever Josephus says, the early Talmud authors included it as "Scripture".
Looks like Josephus was unaware of the dispute over Ecclesiastes to begin with, one must wonder if he was being entirely truthful here or if he was going by a traditional Sadducee idea.
No, 1 Esdras is one of the Apocryphal works. It is like Ezra, but contains extra stuff.
No, 1 Esdras is a totally different "version" and has DSS evidence to back it.
Was 1 Esdras First?: An Investigation Into the Priority and Nature of 1 Esdras - Lisbeth S. Fried - Google Books
He still says there are FOUR books of Psalms and Proverbs-type writings. At best I can think of 3. Where's the 4th? And what else besides Nehemiah-Ezra has been said to be bound together as one book?
There is no proof whatsoever for a Council of Yavne/Jamnia, none. It is purely Jewish legend as far as evidence is concerned. And by the fact that the Talmud calls Sirach scripture, looks like such a council didn't happen til centuries later.
Which apostles? Matthew was not likely written by Matthew but is a later editing and redaction of ideas from the "Gospel to the Hebrews". Was Luke an apostle? The Pastoral Epistles were most likely written after Paul was dead. This logic is not consistent. There's no reason to believe that the Shepherd was not Inspired just because it was written after the original Apostles were dead.
A non-Roman-approved Biblical book you mean? Why should the Gospel of Peter be considered non-biblical? A bit circular, no?
Scholars also date the Pastorals to around that time. What now? Why would it be uninspired even if its by that late of dating? Don't you believe what Paul said about there being prophets?
Who are you to say who was and wasn't G-d's appointed servants? The Roman Church?
Why would such inspiratiion stop with them? Why couldn't future apostles and prophets write works such as this? The Ethiopian Bible considers Clement's writings as Inspired. Why are they wrong?
Says you? Why can't later apostles have authorized writings? Why do you accept that Hebrews is Inspired?
Matthew 20:25 But Jesus, calling them to him, said: “YOU know that the rulers of the nations lord it over them and the great men wield authority over them. 26 This is not the way among YOU; but whoever wants to become great among YOU must be YOUR minister, 27 and whoever wants to be first among YOU must be YOUR slave. 28 Just as the Son of man came, not to be ministered to, but to minister and to give his soul a ransom in exchange for many.
I think a new thread on the discrepancies between the apocrypha and the canon is a good way to go. Perhaps if you see the contradictions between the differences in teachings you'll realize that the apocrypha cannot be from God, but that it is written by those who diverted from the true doctrine handed down by the apostles.
Maybe one will find that the apocrypha is true and the regular Bible isn't. Using the same quote you gave, the Bible can be considered invalid, as it was put together by men of authority to establish further authority. There were lots of writings that didn't make it into the Bible when maybe they should have made it and some writings that probably shouldn't have made the Bible (like where Paul contradicts Jesus about what kind of food is allowed).
the difference being that the apostles worked together as a united body where no one apostle was above another. they viewed the head of the church as Christ himself and they were simply ministers of Christ doing his work, not their own.
Obviously. Therefore, my point stands that Josephus was going by what could be a different tradition, a Sadduccee-specific tradition. And he was far from the only writer of the Talmud.Josephus lived before the Talmud was written. The talmud is a 2nd century work by Judah Ha-Nasi (135-219 C.E.) Josephus was a 1st century writer.
Why should Josephus supercede Judah Ha-Nasi (and the rest of the many Talmudists)? He was of Davidic blood even.Why should the writing of Judah Ha-Nasi supersede the writing of Josephus?
It certainly debunks the idea that the Apocrypha was completely dismissed from canonicity from the "Council of Javneh" and shows that there may have been different traditions.You dont think that its possible that by the time the Talmud was written, things may have changed?
But they may have been canon to certain groups. There were dissensions about Ecclesiastes for example that I mentioned.The talmud was written after the temple and priesthood were destroyed...the Sanhedrin had been disbanded and there was no longer a high priest by the time the Talmud was written....actually the Talmud was probably written for that very reason. So the Talmud may be correct in what it says was accepted as scripture in the 2nd/3rd centuries, but if the priesthood still existed, would those same books have been accepted?? Perhaps not considering some of those books were likely in existence in Josephus day and yet they were not mentioned as part of the canon.
He was a defender of SADDUCEE Judaism. The Romans were likely aware that there were differing sects.Josephus was a defender of Judaism among the Roman officials..his writings were written for that purpose and to defend false claims by some Roman officals. He would have been called to account if he gave wrong information about Jewish holy books or anything else to do with Judaism. There is no reason for him to lie about his culture or people to the Romans.
In harmony with the Sadducees.What he wrote would have been in harmony with what was current in the first century.
Like what? It didn't phase Josephus apparently.Perhaps the information in the Esdras you are referring to is contradictory to other bible writings...
Then you need to reread the Apocrypha. 1 Esdras is a different version of Ezra which Josephus makes use of, and 2 Esdras is an entirely different book, one of my favorite books, confirms Reincarnation...somewhat vaguely.that is the norm with apochryphal books. The only Esdras i'm aware of is the 1 and 2 Esdras that correspond with Ezra and Nehemiah and are named as such in most bibles except the Catholic douay.
Why wouldn't they be under "writings"? Where would Ecclesiastes be under?The Hebrew Scriptures were traditionally divided into three sections: the Law, the Prophets, and the Writings/Hagiographa.
We still have to establish which was the 4th book Josephus spoke of in the "Hymns and proverbs" category. .But some chose to put Ruth with Judges, and Lamentations with Jeremiah, and for that reason some Jewish authorities counted 22 books which is the same as the number of letters in the Hebrew alphabet so was likely done for memory purposes.
An authority for a Sadducee view.The talmud is no authority on what was happening prior to the 1st century. Josephus is the best one for that information.
Please explain this simple fact of logic in greater detail. Was Acts and Luke written while Paul was alive? Was Luke an apostle? Why then include 2 Peter and the Pastorals? Where does Hebrews fit in?anything written after the lifetime of the Apostles is not inspired scripture, its a plain and simple fact of logic.
There goes Luke then. And Hebrews.The 12 apostles chosen by Jesus to establish the faith were the one who were authorized to teach the christian doctrine.
Who are the "other apostles"? Why does Paul count as an apostle but not Clement? I don't think you answered my question of whether Paul's guards heard a voice but saw nothing or saw a light but heard nothing.They set it all out before they died and the documents of the gospels, letters of Paul and the other apostles are the only authoritive christian writings that can be said to be inspired by God.
There goes the Pastorals.So for me its a no brainer. anything written after the first century should not be considered part of the canon.
.That was also the opinion of the bishops who confirmed the canon in the 3rd century
And what authority did they have to confirm the authority?they were confirming what books came with the authority of the apostles.
Goodbye Pastorals. Goodbye 2 Peter. You have yet to explain why later apostles and prophets could not have added to the canon, except appealing to old Orthodox councils whom your own Theology disagrees with.Anything written after the apostles time is not part of the canon.
No, that's not what it confirms. It merely says that there are some who don't use it in Church readings.Even the writer of the Mauratorian fragment makes that point clear...certain books could not be viewed as inspired because the were written 'after the apostles time'
That was the pre-requisite plain and simple. If you just stick to that, then there is no confusion over what should or shouldn't be in the canon.
One of my favorite reasons why I include Acts of Peter in my personal canon. Did not Paul recommend that Abstinence was best?because the Gospel of Peter (Acts of Peter) lay heavy stress on complete abstinence from sexual relations and even depict the apostles as urging women to separate from their husbands.
Well then you'll have to explain why Paul says its best to abstain from relations, not necessarily commanded, but best. Also, "with her love" doesn't necessarily mean "With your getting down and dirty". Unless you associate love with sex necessarily, but that's another story.That is in contradiction to Paul’s counsel at 1 Corinthians 7 that a woman 'should not depart from her husband' It is also in contradiction to Jesus words about divorce and it is contradictory to the advice of Proverbs which says to "rejoice with the wife of your youth, 19 a lovable hind and a charming mountain goat. Let her own breasts intoxicate you at all times. With her love may you be in an ecstasy constantly." Proverbs 5:18-19
Then Paul shouldn't have said it was "best".This is an extreme teaching that would actually break marriages up.
So again, why did Paul say it was "best" to avoid conjugal relations?It was likely written by some high minded priest who was trying to promote celibacy which is also contradictory to Gods purpose for mankind to 'fill the earth' with offspring.
Timothy isn't written by Paul, there's plenty of reasons why that this is not the thread to necessarily get into, but it completely contradicts what Paul said earlier about it being "best" to not marry.If you also look at the letter of Paul to Timothy, he prophesied that some christians would promote wrong ideas such as at 1Timothy 4:1 However, the inspired utterance says definitely that in later periods of time some will fall away from the faith, paying attention to misleading inspired utterances and teachings of demons, 2 by the hypocrisy of men who speak lies, marked in their conscience as with a branding iron; 3 forbidding to marry,
How do you know? How do you know Peter wouldn't have renounced conjugality?And would Peter really write such a statement about marriage considering he himself was a married man? No.
Not at all. That's a presumption.The statement itself shows that it would not have been written by Peter at all.
Says who?there were no later apostles...
So then what do you think the meaning of "Deacon" was?later christians made themselves apostles in order to take over the reigns and set themselves up as leaders over the flock of God...something Jesus commanded them NOT to do:
That has nothing to do with establishing apostolic authority. Whatsoever.Matthew 20:25 But Jesus, calling them to him, said: “YOU know that the rulers of the nations lord it over them and the great men wield authority over them. 26 This is not the way among YOU; but whoever wants to become great among YOU must be YOUR minister, 27 and whoever wants to be first among YOU must be YOUR slave. 28 Just as the Son of man came, not to be ministered to, but to minister and to give his soul a ransom in exchange for many.
That would be a good thread. Perhaps you'll see that even Jude refers to Enoch as "prophetic" and there are subtle references to events in writings like Testament of Solomon such as with Jesus referring to the casting out of demons.I think a new thread on the discrepancies between the apocrypha and the canon is a good way to go. Perhaps if you see the contradictions between the differences in teachings you'll realize that the apocrypha cannot be from God, but that it is written by those who diverted from the true doctrine handed down by the apostles.
Question: What does much of this later fluff have to do with the OP?
Obviously. Therefore, my point stands that Josephus was going by what could be a different tradition, a Sadduccee-specific tradition. And he was far from the only writer of the Talmud.
Why should Josephus supercede Judah Ha-Nasi (and the rest of the many Talmudists)? He was of Davidic blood even.
It certainly debunks the idea that the Apocrypha was completely dismissed from canonicity from the "Council of Javneh" and shows that there may have been different traditions.
But they may have been canon to certain groups. There were dissensions about Ecclesiastes for example that I mentioned.
Then you need to reread the Apocrypha. 1 Esdras is a different version of Ezra which Josephus makes use of, and 2 Esdras is an entirely different book, one of my favorite books, confirms Reincarnation...somewhat vaguely.
The traditional canon is arranged in 3 parts begining with the Law.Why wouldn't they be under "writings"? Where would Ecclesiastes be under?
When divided this way the canon contained 24 books.
We still have to establish which was the 4th book Josephus spoke of in the "Hymns and proverbs" category. .
Of course, Josephus was writing about what books of the hebrew bible they viewed as sacred writings in the first century and prior when the priesthood existed. The talmud offers information about the situation from the 2nd century... a huge change had taken place and it was because there was no organized priesthood anymore. The priesthood ended in 70ce when the temple was destroyed.
so if you really want to know what the jews viewed as holy writings, you would need to ask the priests who managed them. The writers of the Talmud had no authority as priests, they were not commissioned by God in the way the priesthood had been so why would you take their word for what is inspired scripture over the Levitical priesthood?
there were a few different sects, but because of the priesthood, none of those sects could take over Judaism and change what the priesthood had protected for centuries. The priesthood protected the holy writings as i said and they also kept the sects in check so that the sects could not take over Judaism. Obviously after 70ce that situation changed and the sects had free reign to rule and teach as they pleased.
but Josephus writes from the perspective of the priesthood, not from any sect.
well, if it confirms reincarnation, then it is most certainly not a book inspired by God because nowhere in any writings of the prophets will you find the idea of reincarnation.
This is what i mean when i say the teachings of the apocrypha contradict the inspired writings. If the shoe doesnt fit, leave it at the door.
The traditional canon is arranged in 3 parts begining with the Law.
1st section - Pentateuch
(1) Genesis,
(2) Exodus,
(3) Leviticus,
(4) Numbers,
(5) Deuteronomy.
2nd section is the Prophets
Early Prophets,
(6) Joshua,
(7) Judges,
(8) Samuel (First and Second together as one book),
(9) Kings (First and Second as one book), and the
Later Prophets, subdivided into major and minor
Major Prophets,
(10) Isaiah,
(11) Jeremiah
(12) Ezekiel, and
(13) Minor Prophets collected into one roll - Hosea, Joel, Amos, Obadiah, Jonah, Micah, Nahum, Habakkuk, Zephaniah, Haggai, Zechariah, and Malachi.
The third section was called the Holy Writings or Hagiographa, in two parts
(14) Psalms,
(15) Proverbs,
(16) Job;
2nd part Five Megilloth or five separate scrolls,
(17) The Song of Solomon,
(18) Ruth,
(19) Lamentations,
(20) Ecclesiastes,
(21) Esther,
(22) Daniel,
(23) Ezra-Nehemiah (combined),
(24) Chronicles (First and Second together as one book).
As the 'Writings' are divided into the two parts, it could very well be that josephus was pointing to the 2nd part of the 'holy writings' as the 4th section.
i'll respond to the NT questions in a new post, otherwise they start getting too long.