So you have no problem with interpolating these interpretations into translations? It is completely irrelevant if two scholars think that Paul is referring to the Torah - he didn't write 'the Torah' inasmuch as we can discern from the text -- it's not even in the translation that you chose(!).
If Paul did write 'Torah', or even if some textual tradition preserved it, then there would be no dispute, no room for interpreting Paul any other way - Yes, he would be referring to the Torah because he uses the word. But he's using a word where there is a possibility -- and with Paul, a strong possibility that he could be referring to something else.
1) nomos can be a referring to the Torah, but also many other things
2) but the Torah always refers to the Torah unless there's a significant reason why it's not
3) Therefore, when you replace the translation 'law' with 'Torah,' you are artificially closing all other doors to the other plausible interpretations. If you preserve 'law' it can refer to Torah, if you prove it... but the proof is an interpretation, not in the text itself.
I think it's more than a little intellectually dishonest AND it displays a bit of insecurity in the argument when you must knowingly interpolate your interpretation into the text... especially when it's something this significant.