• Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.

    Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:
    • Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
    • Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
    • Access to private conversations with other members.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!

Prophet Jesus PBUH commanded people to be Muslim

Servant_of_the_One1

Well-Known Member
By Him in whose Hands is my Soul, the command of Prophet Jesus pbuh reminds me of Noble Quran


133. Or were you witnesses when death approached Ya'qub (Jacob)? When he said unto his sons, "What will you worship after me?" They said, "We shall worship your Ilah (God - Allah), the Ilah (God) of your fathers, Ibrahim (Abraham), Isma'il (Ishmael), Ishaque (Isaac), One Ilah(God), and to Him we submit (in Islam)."

And


But when Jesus perceived disbelief on their part, he said: Who will be my helpers in Allah's way? The disciples said: We are Allah's helpers: we believe in Allah, and bear thou witness that we are Mushlams/Muslims.

Now look what Bible says:





Ein talmeed na'leh 'al rabbo; shekken kal adam she'MUSHLAM yihyeh k'rabbo."

Translation in English: "No student can be above his teacher, but everyone that is a MUSLIM, can be as his teacher."

Evidence from the English translation of Luke 6:40 that further prove that the word 'Muslim' was used by Jesus:

Luke 6:40 (KJV) The disciple is not above his master: but every one that is perfect shall be as his master.

Luke 6:40 (Darby)
The disciple is not above his teacher, but every one that is perfected shall be as his teacher.

Luke 6:40 (Young's Literal Translation)
A disciple is not above his teacher, but every one perfected shall be as his teacher.

Luke 6:40 (21st Century King James Version)
The disciple is not above his master, but every one that is perfect shall be as his master.

Luke 6:40 (American Standard Version)
The disciple is not above his teacher: but every one when he is perfected shall be as his teacher.



So to be like the teacher, we should become Mushlams/Muslims.
 

Thana

Lady
By Him in whose Hands is my Soul, the command of Prophet Jesus pbuh reminds me of Noble Quran


133. Or were you witnesses when death approached Ya'qub (Jacob)? When he said unto his sons, "What will you worship after me?" They said, "We shall worship your Ilah (God - Allah), the Ilah (God) of your fathers, Ibrahim (Abraham), Isma'il (Ishmael), Ishaque (Isaac), One Ilah(God), and to Him we submit (in Islam)."

And


But when Jesus perceived disbelief on their part, he said: Who will be my helpers in Allah's way? The disciples said: We are Allah's helpers: we believe in Allah, and bear thou witness that we are Mushlams/Muslims.

Now look what Bible says:





Ein talmeed na'leh 'al rabbo; shekken kal adam she'MUSHLAM yihyeh k'rabbo."

Translation in English: "No student can be above his teacher, but everyone that is a MUSLIM, can be as his teacher."

Evidence from the English translation of Luke 6:40 that further prove that the word 'Muslim' was used by Jesus:

Luke 6:40 (KJV) The disciple is not above his master: but every one that is perfect shall be as his master.

Luke 6:40 (Darby)
The disciple is not above his teacher, but every one that is perfected shall be as his teacher.

Luke 6:40 (Young's Literal Translation)
A disciple is not above his teacher, but every one perfected shall be as his teacher.

Luke 6:40 (21st Century King James Version)
The disciple is not above his master, but every one that is perfect shall be as his master.

Luke 6:40 (American Standard Version)
The disciple is not above his teacher: but every one when he is perfected shall be as his teacher.



So to be like the teacher, we should become Mushlams/Muslims.

I really don't see what the one thing has to do with the other?
 

Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
By Him in whose Hands is my Soul, the command of Prophet Jesus pbuh reminds me of Noble Quran


133. Or were you witnesses when death approached Ya'qub (Jacob)? When he said unto his sons, "What will you worship after me?" They said, "We shall worship your Ilah (God - Allah), the Ilah (God) of your fathers, Ibrahim (Abraham), Isma'il (Ishmael), Ishaque (Isaac), One Ilah(God), and to Him we submit (in Islam)."

And


But when Jesus perceived disbelief on their part, he said: Who will be my helpers in Allah's way? The disciples said: We are Allah's helpers: we believe in Allah, and bear thou witness that we are Mushlams/Muslims.

Now look what Bible says:





Ein talmeed na'leh 'al rabbo; shekken kal adam she'MUSHLAM yihyeh k'rabbo."

Translation in English: "No student can be above his teacher, but everyone that is a MUSLIM, can be as his teacher."

Evidence from the English translation of Luke 6:40 that further prove that the word 'Muslim' was used by Jesus:

Luke 6:40 (KJV) The disciple is not above his master: but every one that is perfect shall be as his master.

Luke 6:40 (Darby)
The disciple is not above his teacher, but every one that is perfected shall be as his teacher.

Luke 6:40 (Young's Literal Translation)
A disciple is not above his teacher, but every one perfected shall be as his teacher.

Luke 6:40 (21st Century King James Version)
The disciple is not above his master, but every one that is perfect shall be as his master.

Luke 6:40 (American Standard Version)
The disciple is not above his teacher: but every one when he is perfected shall be as his teacher.



So to be like the teacher, we should become Mushlams/Muslims.

I just looked at it in the Greek and it doesn't say Muslim anywhere.

It is well known that the Qur'an includes older Hebrew, and Christian ideas.

Even your tradition claims it was compiled in 610 A.D. - well after Tanakh and the New testament. And the oldest full copy is from the 9th century.


*
 
Last edited:

LuisDantas

Aura of atheification
Premium Member
Did the word "Muslim" even exist when the Gospel of Luke was written?
Maybe it did, but the Bible was not translated in Arabic with enough volume to make it clear whether "perfect/perfected" and the Arabic translation were meant to have a meaning of its own, separate from that of the Qur'an?

If so, then it empties the claim in the OP completely, but there is a good chance that the creator of this thread will feel instead that it reinforces his claim.
 

Tiapan

Grumpy Old Man
There is an old adage if your terrible in real life business become a teacher. As a teacher I find it true as I can retreat behind the system.
 

Servant_of_the_One1

Well-Known Member
I just looked at it in the Greek and it doesn't say Muslim anywhere.

It is well known that the Qur'an includes older Hebrew, and Christian ideas.

Even your tradition claims it was compiled in 610 A.D. - well after Tanakh and the New testament. And the oldest full copy is from the 9th century.


*



No check the Hebrew version.

Greek version is corrupted. Thats my belief.
 

Servant_of_the_One1

Well-Known Member
In the Qur'an?

In the Arabic translations of the Bible?

In both?


I mean in the hebrew version of Luke.
They use the Word Mushlam which is identical to Muslim.
Western christians dont know this because they read bible translated from Greek. Jesus pbuh didnt speak greek.


So Jesus pbuh says by becoming Muslim/Mushlam someone can be equal to teacher.

Shalom=Salam
Machamadim=Muhammadim(im is respective words just like Eloh-im).
So Machamad becomes Muhammad without the "im" respective word.
 

LuisDantas

Aura of atheification
Premium Member
But that only shows that the authors of the Qur'an and of the Gospel of Luke both liked to use that specific word ("perfect/perfected") to describe good adherents to their faiths.

It does not at all follow that they had even had compatible understandings of what a Muslim/perfect/perfected would be.
 

Servant_of_the_One1

Well-Known Member
But that only shows that the authors of the Qur'an and of the Gospel of Luke both liked to use that specific word ("perfect/perfected") to describe good adherents to their faiths.

It does not at all follow that they had even had compatible understandings of what a Muslim/perfect/perfected would be.


The Luke wording of Mushlam is confirmed in Quran.
We believe Jesus taught his disciples and followers to be Mushlams.
No where does Jesus pbuh say to his disciples: Be Christosos/Christians.
The word Christians came to be used for the first time in ancient anatolia.


I have no problem calling myself Mushlam because it has the same roots as Muslim. Same words just like Shalom and Salam.
 

LuisDantas

Aura of atheification
Premium Member
The Luke wording of Mushlam is confirmed in Quran.

And the Qur'an was written perhaps 500 years after the Gospel, so I am not sure why that would be relevant except perhaps as evidence that the Qur'an was aware of the earlier text and did not want to clash with it.


We believe Jesus taught his disciples and followers to be Mushlams.

You certainly do. I don't see how you could claim Jesus as one of your prophets otherwise.

From what I have been told, it seems that you (and Muslims generally) also understand that important as the revelation of the Qur'an was, the religion of Islam existed in some form for a long time prior to it, allegedly going back all the way to Abraham (Ibrahim) and even to Adam himself. I seem to recall that you actually take Adam as one of your prophets as well, but I could be wrong about that.

I don't think I have to remind you that most non-Muslims think instead of Islam as having began with Muhammad and the Qur'an.


So this belief of yours quoted above can be interpreted in at least two ways.

1. Jesus (according to Luke's Gospel and to the Qur'an) called his disciples to "be perfected/Muslims", which is to say, to attempt to become better people with their reigious practice.

In that sense, the statement is probably true and uncontroversial. Hardly anyone would even attempt to dispute that. (Well, I dispute Jesus existence, but that is a separate matter for another time).


and 2. Jesus was aware of some form, version or approximation of the contents of the Qur'an and hoped to teach it to his disciples.

This is what I think you are claiming, but it is far more speculative than the first meaning above.



No where does Jesus pbuh say to his disciples: Be Christosos/Christians.
The word Christians came to be used for the first time in ancient anatolia.

I think it is fair to trust that the first few Christians had a good idea of what they meant to write in their scriptures, though. Hoping that they truly meant something else seems reaching a bit too far to me.


I have no problem calling myself Mushlam because it has the same roots as Muslim. Same words just like Shalom and Salam.

No argument from me about that. It is just variation due to the use of a different language, and it is even a closely related language at that.
 

Aquitaine

Well-Known Member
Interpretation is a wonderful thing.
Isn't it just?

Also, isn't it funny how a significant number of these creator gods chose to communicate their will to humans through a method so prone to subjective human interpretation? :)
 

wizanda

One Accepts All Religious Texts
Premium Member
G2675
καταρτίζω
katartizō
Total KJV Occurrences: 17
perfect, 5
Luk_6:40, 2Co_13:11, 1Th_3:10, Heb_13:21, 1Pe_5:10
make, 2
Heb_13:21, 1Pe_5:10
mending, 2
Mat_4:21, Mar_1:19
fitted, 1
Rom_9:22
framed, 1
Heb_11:3
joined, 1
1Co_1:10
perfected, 1
Mat_21:16
perfectly, 1
1Co_1:10
prepared, 1
Heb_10:5
restore, 1
Gal_6:1
together, 1
1Co_1:10

:rolleyes:
 

Crypto2015

Active Member
Muslims claim that all the prophets were Muslims. However, there is no archaeological or scriptural evidence to support this claim. They say that the writings of the prophets do not match the teachings of Islam because the Old Testament and the New Testament have been corrupted. This is patently false. The Red Sea scrolls prove without shadow of a doubt that the Old Testament has not been corrupted. So, where are all the original and uncorrupted writings of the prophets? Where is the archaeological evidence for a pre-Christian Islam? Where are the Mosques from the time of Abraham? Where is the pre-7th-century evidence for Islam in Mecca? There is nothing of this because Islam begun in the 7th century. This is patently obvious. For example, the Qur'an is said to be eternal. However, the Qur'an talks about Adam's expulsion from the Paradise any explanation of who Adam was and what the Paradise is. Hence, the Qur'an depends 100% on the Bible. Without the Bible, the Qur'an makes absolutely no sense. How can an eternal, uncreated book depend on a created and allegedly corrupted book?
 
Top