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So we know the lack of consent is there in all rape cases, so we can agree upon that. So how is knowingly acting on someone's body not an act of violence?
This is World Health Organization's definition of violence in a study on violence, according to the wiki on violence:
Violence is the intentional use of physical force or
power, threatened or actual, against a person, or against a group or community, that either results in or has a high likelihood of resulting in injury, death, psychological harm, maldevelopment or deprivation.
[2] This definition associates intentionality with the committing of the act itself, irrespective of the outcome it produces.
In either case, whether a drunken frat guy thinks he heard the lack of consent but wasn't sure, or whether it was a planned event, a decision must take place to ignore the consent of the other person and act upon their body. This has to be the primary motivation for rape. It doesn't matter whether someone was horny or wanting revenge or whatever.
If I'm having sex with someone and she stops, and I keep going, my main motivation for ignoring her, no matter how bad I want to ejaculate, is to act regardless of one's will, not to ejaculate to continue sex.
What I'm getting at here, is how can ignoring someone's consent not be the
primary drive/motivation when ignoring someone's consent?
And if we agree in any instance that my definition provided by WHO is in any way accurate when describing violence, and if we agree that primary reason/motivation to ignores someone's will and act upon their body is to disregard their will and act upon their body, then main drive to rape is always innately and first-most violent.
There would be difficulty basing that as the "primary drive/motivation" but the wanting to continue past someone's consent is always a drive or motivation prevalent in someone when acting past someone's consent (on their body that is). And wanting to continue on someone's body through the use of force is violence. Whether the motivation is the primary one or not seems rather unimportant when determining if violence is always there.
Your post said:
"In between, there are many gradiations of various elements, but I'd say that both scenarios could be defined as rape. However, for situations closer to the first scenario, I don't think committing violence is the prime motivation of the person, whereas in the second scenario, violence is clearly the primary, and perhaps, only motivation."
Whether or not the former situation's example-person's intentions to ignore one's consent and act on them irrespectively is the "primary drive" or not, it is still there, it is still violence, and it still precedes the rape. And, if I'm understanding the arguments of others, then what they are getting at here, is that this drive, whether primary or not, is always violent, and is always intentional by the person doing it. The drive for "violence" must be present in every case in which someone is acting out violence. Whether that is the primary cause or not seems to be unimportant.
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We agree that ignoring someone's consent is always present in rape. I guess you're right that it comes down to semantics. So how is willfully ignoring someone's consent to act upon their body not violence? Again...
Violence is the intentional use of physical force or
power, threatened or actual, against a person, or against a group or community, that either results in or has a high likelihood of resulting in injury, death, psychological harm, maldevelopment or deprivation.
[2] This definition associates intentionality with the committing of the act itself, irrespective of the outcome it produces.
Or, is there an objection to this understanding of violence?