Wildswanderer
Veteran Member
Obviously she was suspected of having sex with someone but the whole point is that it's only suspected.Why did you skip the first four verses? The man's wife supposedly cheated on him, she had sex with another is his belief, even though there were no witnesses. Try to think real hard, how does he know? This is not a test that one enters into lightly. The man would need evidence that proves to him that his wife cheated on him. And though you do not understand the euphemisms it is verse 21 where it says that she will miscarry if she is pregnant. You should use a more modern interpretation. You clearly cannot understand the King James version. It is far too poetic for some to understand.
The reason you get both translations is because it's a hard passage to understand and translate. There's more than one possible meaning.
“May the people know that the LORD’s curse is upon you when he makes you infertile, causing your womb to shrivel and your abdomen to swell. Now may this water that brings the curse enter your body and cause your abdomen to swell and your womb to shrivel.” And the woman will be required to say, “Yes, let it be so.” (NLT)
(Let the priest make the woman take the oath of the curse, and say to the woman) “the LORD make you a curse and an oath among your people, when the LORD makes your thigh fall away and your body swell. May this water that brings the curse pass into your bowels and make your womb swell and your thigh fall away.” And the woman shall say, “Amen, Amen.” (ESV)
The vast majority of English translations seem to speak of the woman undergoing some sort of disfigurement if she were guilty.
The differences between the two versions that say miscarriage and the others highlight one of the trickiest and riskiest aspects of translation work...l how should a phrase be translated if it is believed to be an idiom?
At any rate,neither option supports the claim that the Bible does not place special value on a baby in the womb.
If the miscarriage view is accurate, then the priest needed only to see whether the woman miscarried. If she did not miscarry, the husband could be confident that his wife had been faithful to their marriage and that the unborn child was his. In both perspectives, if the woman were innocent, she would be able to have children after this ordeal. But if she were guilty, these verses imply that she could no longer have children.
If the disfigurement view is accurate, then there is really no connection whatsoever to the modern debate over the sanctity of unborn babies because the passage would not even be about a pregnant woman
In the miscarriage view of Numbers 5 the woman was possiblity pregnant through an adulterous relationship, a sin that normally carried the death penalty (Leviticus 20:10). But because no witnesses came forward, the woman was given an opportunity to clear her name and ease her husband’s suspicions by swearing before him, a priest, and God that she was innocent of adultery. If she lied in this situation, the miscarriage is clearly a result of her blatant rebellion of swearing falsely before the Lord in addition to her adultery, knowing the consequences. So the responsibility for the child’s death rested squarely on the mother for her sins, as well as the adulterous father of the child. The priest did not surgically abort the woman’s child. Instead, in a case where witnesses could not be found to determine guilt or innocence, God revealed the woman’s guilt by causing her to miscarry and preventing her from ever conceiving again.
The priest did not perform an abortion here. The persons responsible for the loss of the unborn child would be the child’s lying mother and the man engaged in an adulterous affair with her. Rather than supporting abortion, this passage shows us that God under the law treated the unborn child the same as those who have already been born. That is, in certain situations, a child died because of his or her parents’ grave sin.