It is good you brought up the Mesopotamian and Egyptian influence. I previously described the Mesopotamian influence in the evolution of the Pentateuch from Sumerian and Babylonian writings. Yes, the Egyptian influence is also a factor, because of the direct Egyptian influence in the Levant through much of its history, Some of earliest Proto-Hebrew texts are alphabetic in nature related to the earlier first alphabetic text found in Egypt,You will not "conclude specifically"?
What you will do, however, is instructive, not to mention intellectually disingenuous. You scan for a reference that coheres with your mantra and find (glory be) the abstract to Smith's Canaanite Backgrounds to Psalms, which you proceed to quote in full. Good for you! (FWIW, I rather like Smith.)
What I find noteworthy, however, is not your exercise in selection bias, but
So, what are we left with? The amazing realization that a curated collection, presumably aimed at an audience, reflects the worldview and genres common to that audience, and to a landmass stretching from Egypt to Syria and beyond. Just brilliant.\
- that you limit your quote to the readily accessible abstract, suggesting that you have yet to actually read the article, and
- that you reference only the abstract of chapter 3, while silently passing over (a) chapter 2: Mesopotamian Parallels to the Psalms, and (b) chapter 4: Egyptian Backgrounds to the Psalms.
I was emphasizing the Canaanite/Phoenician influence on the Psalms because I feel it is dominant due to the fact that the Hebrew tribes were Canaanite tribes, and their linguistic, cultural and religious influence of the Canaanites is dominant. The Mesopotamian influence on Hebrews is two sources: (1) Via the Mesopotamian texts that influenced the Canaanite/ Ugarit tests, and some texts found in the Ugarit libraries were in Mesopotamian languages. (2) The Hebrews were greatly influenced by the Assyrians during the exile.
Your contributions are appreciated, but your negative sarcasm is not.And then, as if to add comic relief to this reveal, you graciously offer ...
If the Hebrews had a written language it would be Phoenician/Canaanite, but before that 11th/10th centuries they apparently did not use it much if at all. It is possible the priests were likely literate in other languages
I just love your "it is possible the priests were likely," if only because it posits a priestly class sustained by a nomadic kingdom while being seemingly oblivious to the anything approaching a scribal class, despite the fact that such a class was ubiquitous throughout the Ancient Near East. Oh, well ... you would benefit from reading Podany's Weavers, Scribes and Kings.
But what's the point? Let's assume that your mantra is absolute truth, i.e., that there was no written Hebrew language before Egypt's decline. Therefore?
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