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The Divinity of the Quran vs. the Bible

your answers bowman are unsatisfactory.

You have not stated any portions from all the books in the new Testament that claim that each book's author received direct word for word revelation from God which was recorded as is with nothing added by the author. Therefore, the entire New Testament is not pure revelation from God.

You have not stated any passage stating the bible is a complete teaching.

You have not stated any passage guaranteeing the preservation of the text of the bible in it's original form. In fact, there are massive doubts as to who wrote each book, what portions are later additions and what was lost in translation. You also have to deal with the fact that the books themselves were compiled much later after Jesus, and only a select few were AUTHORIZED BY MEN to be deemed DIVINE SCRIPTURE.

The claims therefore, of the bible, remain as I stated them.

In regards to the Quran, you have some misguided notions.
The Quran states it is a perfect teaching for all mankind for all time. No argument from you.

The Quran states that it will remain protected for all time in it's original form
-Someone stated there are original manuscripts different from what the Quran is today. COMPLETELY FALSE. If you have a single verse, even a single letter that is different, you have an obligation to present it so the truth can come to light.

The Quran is Pure Revelation from God to the Prophet Muhammad
-Bowman has a problem that the actual word Muhammad is not used to state that I Allah, reveal this, to Muhammad. But even a child can understand that every language has substitutes for proper Nouns. For example, if I am speaking to you and your name is John, I can say "This is for you" instead of saying "this is for John". Or We grant this to you. Or I give this to you. Even a child would understand such a sentence using the term "you" or any other pronoun as implying the only the 2 people in the conversation, and noone else. In like fashion, the Quran also uses the term "you" when speaking to the Prophet. For example,

[2:120] [FONT=_PDMS_Saleem_QuranFont] اِنَّاۤ اَرْسَلْنٰكَ بِالْحَـقِّ بَشِيْرًا وَّنَذِيْرًاۙ* وَّلَا تُسْـَٔـلُ عَنْ اَصْحٰبِ الْجَحِيْمِ‏ [/FONT]
speaker.gif
We have sent thee with the Truth, as a bearer of glad tidings and a warner. And thou wilt not be questioned about the inmates of Hell.

[3:4] [FONT=_PDMS_Saleem_QuranFont] نَزَّلَ عَلَيْكَ الْـكِتٰبَ بِالْحَقِّ مُصَدِّقًا لِّمَا بَيْنَ يَدَيْهِ وَاَنْزَلَ التَّوْرٰٮةَ وَالْاِنْجِيْلَۙ‏ [/FONT]
speaker.gif
He has sent down to thee the Book containing the truth and fulfilling that which precedes it; and He sent down the Torah and the Gospel

AND THE CLOSER FOR THIS ARGUMENT...


[3:45] [FONT=_PDMS_Saleem_QuranFont] ذٰلِكَ مِنْ اَنْۢبَآءِ الْغَيْبِ نُوْحِيْهِ اِلَيْكَ*ؕ وَمَا كُنْتَ لَدَيْهِمْ اِذْ يُلْقُوْنَ اَقْلاَمَهُمْ اَيُّهُمْ يَكْفُلُ مَرْيَمَ وَمَا كُنْتَ لَدَيْهِمْ اِذْ يَخْتَصِمُوْنَ‏ [/FONT]
speaker.gif
This is of the tidings of things unseen which We reveal to thee. And thou wast not with them when they cast their arrows, as to which of them should be the guardian of Mary, nor wast thou with them when they disputed with one another.

The beauty of the Arabic language is that whenever a single person is being addressed, the letter "ka"
[FONT=_PDMS_Saleem_QuranFont]كَ[/FONT]
comes at the end of the word. In all of these verses, God is the speaker, and the "ka" at the end proves that the receiver is the one person who is being addressed, who everyone is unanimous in agreeing with is Muhammad, whether you believe the revelation or not.

Attempts to prove the Quran is from the bible do not belong in this thread. I did not ask yet for argumens. we are still clearing up the CLAIMS THAT EACH BOOK MAKES FOR ITSELF.

and yet again, the Quran stands on top in the claims it makes for itself.
 

Bowman

Active Member
exactly, just like quran says
[We have sent down the Quran Ourself, and We Ourself will guard it....] (Quran, Al-Hijr 15: 9),

Allah promised to protect it!!



إنا نحن نزلنا الذكر وإنا له لحفظون

Inna nahnu nazzalna alththikra wa-inna lahu lahafithoona

15.9 Truly we, we have revealed the account, and truly to Him, guardians.



The only two other Koranic passages containing the term “lahafithoona”, and absolutely identical phrase (wa-inna lahu lahafithoona), occur in sura 12, and paraphrases OT scripture regarding the son, Joseph, as witnessed here…


12.12 Arsilhu maAAana ghadan yartaAA wayalAAab wa-inna lahu lahafithoona


12.63 Falamma rajaAAoo ila abeehim qaloo ya abana muniAAa minna alkaylu faarsil maAAana akhana naktal wa-inna lahu lahafithoona



Thus, this gives us the vital evidence needed to ensure that “lahu” follows the masculine path and refers to a male…and not to an “it”…



If you read the context leading up to this ayah, you will quickly observe that it was taken from the Book of Revelation, with the “guardians” referencing the angels, and the “Him” referring to Jesus Christ.

15.8 gives us further confirmation that it is Jesus Christ by explicitly using the epithet “The Truth” which is one of the numerous Biblical attributes of Jesus…

15.9 has nothing to do with preservation of the Koran.

15.9 has everything to do the Jesus Christ as revealed through the Book of Revelation!
 

Bowman

Active Member
your answers bowman are unsatisfactory.

On the contrary, our answers are entirely satisfactory and 100% verifiable for anyone willing to study the original languages.



You have not stated any portions from all the books in the new Testament that claim that each book's author received direct word for word revelation from God which was recorded as is with nothing added by the author. Therefore, the entire New Testament is not pure revelation from God.

You only asked for one verse from the NT, brother...and, that is what you received....and, as you can see, it completely and utterly satisfies your criteria as you have it worded.

Now...it is most interesting that you apparently have never bother to actually study the Book of Revelation, other than to visit islamic polemic websites in order to lambaste the Bible.

Perhaps you need to become cognizant of what the Book of Revelation actually is...as it summarizes the entire Holy Bible...thus, the quote given to you more than satisfies...

Further, you still have not supplied a like ayah from your book of faith.

Why the double standard...?
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
We already gave you several dozen ayah examples with which to select from and discuss....however, you are unable to do this elementary task, as you have no experience whatsoever in Arabic.

Just man-up to this, and be done with it.

The best that you can do now is to start googling your replies...
Again, you have yet proven your stance. If you can't prove your stance, there is no reason to disprove it. You have the burden of proof. And your narrow-minded interpretation doesn't work, especially when you haven't shown any credibility. Again, you have the burden of proof. I'm not going to waste my time proving something wrong that has no evidence to the contrary.
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
control.to.win- Your stance is based on illogic. You can't prove your book is divine because it says so.

Bowman- Your stance is also based on ignorance. You can't use a verse in Revelation to prove anything about the Bible as a whole, because Revelation never speaks of the Bible, or even was intended to be in the Bible.

Thus, both sides of this argument are illogical.
 

Bowman

Active Member
The Quran states it is a perfect teaching for all mankind for all time. No argument from you.

Where is this, brother...?



The Quran states that it will remain protected for all time in it's original form

Where is this, brother...?


-Someone stated there are original manuscripts different from what the Quran is today. COMPLETELY FALSE. If you have a single verse, even a single letter that is different, you have an obligation to present it so the truth can come to light.

The oldest copy of the Koran is a mere fragment of one sura, brother.

Hardly 'original'....and hardly the basis for an unchanged Koran...




The Quran is Pure Revelation from God to the Prophet Muhammad


The Koran never states this...only islam.....


-Bowman has a problem that the actual word Muhammad is not used to state that I Allah, reveal this, to Muhammad. But even a child can understand that every language has substitutes for proper Nouns. For example, if I am speaking to you and your name is John, I can say "This is for you" instead of saying "this is for John". Or We grant this to you. Or I give this to you. Even a child would understand such a sentence using the term "you" or any other pronoun as implying the only the 2 people in the conversation, and noone else.

It should not be difficult for you to produce a simple, straight forward....I, Muhammad" wrote such and such...

We already showed you where John makes this statement.

Why are you having such a difficult time, brother....?




In like fashion, the Quran also uses the term "you" when speaking to the Prophet. For example,

[2:120] [FONT=_PDMS_Saleem_QuranFont]اِنَّاۤ اَرْسَلْنٰكَ بِالْحَـقِّ بَشِيْرًا وَّنَذِيْرًاۙ* وَّلَا تُسْـَٔـلُ عَنْ اَصْحٰبِ الْجَحِيْمِ‏ [/FONT]
speaker.gif

We have sent thee with the Truth, as a bearer of glad tidings and a warner. And thou wilt not be questioned about the inmates of Hell.


'The Truth' always refers to Jesus Christ in the Koran, brother...you are simply expressing my position over, and over, and over again...

Try again...






[3:4] [FONT=_PDMS_Saleem_QuranFont]نَزَّلَ عَلَيْكَ الْـكِتٰبَ بِالْحَقِّ مُصَدِّقًا لِّمَا بَيْنَ يَدَيْهِ وَاَنْزَلَ التَّوْرٰٮةَ وَالْاِنْجِيْلَۙ‏ [/FONT]
speaker.gif


He has sent down to thee the Book containing the truth and fulfilling that which precedes it; and He sent down the Torah and the Gospel



“The Qur’an” does not appear in the Arabic. In fact, the term is “alkitaba” which always refers to written Biblical material whenever it is used in the Koran. After all, the Koran was oral to begin with per Islamic tradition, and was not written down in book form. Thus, it cannot possibly be referring to itself.

The term “Muhammad” also does not appear in the Arabic, and you had to once again artificially assume the term into the text – abrogating its original meaning.

Here is the most correct rendering of this ayah with context…



الله لا إله إلا هو الحي القيوم نزل عليك الكتب بالحق مصدقا لما بين يديه وأنزل التورية والإنجيل


Allahu la ilaha illa huwa alhayyu alqayyoomu nazzala AAalayka alkitaba bialhaqqi musaddiqan lima bayna yadayhi waanzala alttawrata waal-injeela

“allah” no God, except He ‘The Living One’, ‘The Sustainer’ has sent down on you The Book through ‘The Truth’, fulfilling the truth altogether manifestbefore Him, and sent down the scriptures of the Jews and Christians and the Gospel.(3.2 – 3)


As you can see for yourself, “allah” is proclaimed as being no God (“la ilaha”) and then gives exception to the true God via the term “illa”, and then lists out the attributes of the true God i.e. ‘The Living One’ & ‘The Sustainer’.

The Book (“alkitaba”) is sent through ‘The Truth’ (“alhaqqi”), of which, according to 4.171 refers to Jesus Christ, only.
 

Islam432

Practicing Muslim
Islam holds that the Qur’an was revealed from Allah to Muhammad orally through the angel Jibrīl (Gabriel) over a period of approximately twenty-three years, beginning in 610 CE, when he was forty, and concluding in 632 CE, the year of his death.[2][6][7] Muslims further believe that the Qur’an was memorized, recited and written down by Muhammad's companions after every revelation dictated by Muhammad. Most of Muhammad's companions--tens of thousands—learned the Qur’an by heart, repeatedly recited in front of Muhammad for his approval or the approval of other Sahaba Muhammad had approved. The companions also compiled it in written form while Muhammad was alive. Muslim tradition agrees that although the Qur’an was authentically memorized completely by tens of thousands verbally, the Qur’an was still established textually into a single book form shortly after Muhammad's death by order of the first Caliph Abu Bakr suggested by his future successor Umar.[8] Hafsa, Muhammad's widow and Umar's daughter, was entrusted with that Quran text after the second Caliph Umar passed away. When Uthman, the third Caliph, started noticing differences in the dialect of the Qur’an, he requested Hafsa to allow him to use the Qur’an text in her possession to be set as the standard dialect, the Quraish dialect aka Fus'ha (Modern Standard Arabic). Before returning that Qur'an text to Hafsa, Uthman immediately made several copies of Abu Bakar's Qur’anic compilation and ordered all other texts to be burned. This process of formalization of the orally transmitted text to Abu Bakar's Qur'anic text is known as the "Uthmanic recension".[9] The present form of the Qur’an text is accepted by most scholars as the original version compiled by Abu Bakr.[9][10]

source Qur'an - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
History

Archaeologists, experts of Oriental Studies and scholars of other disciplines seem to agree to the fact that the Quran hasn't changed for more than a 1000 years (see The Atlantic Monthly; January 1999; What is the Koran? Volume 283, No 1; pages 43-56).

Furthermore, there are very old manuscripts from the early Middle Ages (800 AD.) exhibited in the British Museum and have been in British possession for centuries (The Quran, M.Lings and Y.H.Safadi, London, 1976). One copy in the Egyptian National Museum written on gazelle skin has been dated back to 688 AD, 58 years after Mohammed and all these old findings are still the same versions as the ones that are being currently distributed among Muslims. This is nothing unusual as such since some Bibles are older than that
 

Islam432

Practicing Muslim
The oldest copy of the Koran is a mere fragment of one sura, brother.

Hardly 'original'....and hardly the basis for an unchanged Koran...
i already proved Quran is preserved in its original form even so bring a single contradiction in quran bcz humans are bound to make errors

on the other hand bible has many historical,mathematic,imaginary errors in bible (some Christian scholars agree with that)

i can give a list if you want:sarcastic

p.s next time might wanna keep the post shorter
 
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Islam432

Practicing Muslim
“The Qur’an” does not appear in the Arabic. In fact, the term is “alkitaba” which always refers to written Biblical material whenever it is used in the Koran. After all, the Koran was oral to begin with per Islamic tradition, and was not written down in book form. Thus, it cannot possibly be referring to itself.

Bible was written in Hebrew and Quran is written in Arabic

both are like sister languages but not same

The term “Muhammad” also does not appear in the Arabic, and you had to once again artificially assume the term into the text – abrogating its original meaning.

1) "Muhammad is not but a messenger. [Other] messengers have passed on before him. ..." [Quran, chapter 3, verse 144]

2) "Muhammad is not the father of [any] one of your men, but [he is] the Messenger of Allah and last of the prophets. And ever is Allah, of all things, Knowing. (40)"
[Quran, chapter 33, verse 40]
3) " And those who believe and do righteous deeds and believe in what has been sent down upon Muhammad - and it is the truth from their Lord - He will remove from them their misdeeds and amend their condition. (2)"
[Quran, chapter 47, verse 2]

4) "Muhammad is the Messenger of Allah; and those with him are forceful against the disbelievers, merciful among themselves...."
[Quran, chapter 48, verse 29]
 

Bowman

Active Member
i already proved Quran is preserved in its original form even so bring a single contradiction in quran bcz humans are bound to make errors

There are many versions of the Koran. Which one do you follow...?




on the other hand bible has many historical,mathematic,imaginary errors in bible (some Christian scholars agree with that)

i can give a list if you want:sarcastic


We can also provide a laundry list of errors and contradictions in your Koran.

Do you want to exchange weblinks...?




p.s next time might wanna keep the post shorter

Our posts are as long, or as short as needed to convey the message, brother...
 

Bowman

Active Member
Bible was written in Hebrew and Quran is written in Arabic

both are like sister languages but not same


False.

The Holy Bible was written in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek.




1) "Muhammad is not but a messenger. [Other] messengers have passed on before him. ..." [Quran, chapter 3, verse 144]

2) "Muhammad is not the father of [any] one of your men, but [he is] the Messenger of Allah and last of the prophets. And ever is Allah, of all things, Knowing. (40)"
[Quran, chapter 33, verse 40]
3) " And those who believe and do righteous deeds and believe in what has been sent down upon Muhammad - and it is the truth from their Lord - He will remove from them their misdeeds and amend their condition. (2)"
[Quran, chapter 47, verse 2]

4) "Muhammad is the Messenger of Allah; and those with him are forceful against the disbelievers, merciful among themselves...."
[Quran, chapter 48, verse 29]

Why does the term "Muhammad" appear in the context of Jesus' Parable of the Growing Seed...as found only in the Gospel of Mark, chapter 4....?
 

Islam432

Practicing Muslim
There are many versions of the Koran. Which one do you follow...?

All version are same only they have different translation , and translations are bound to have errors even maybe 0.1% has its the work of humans



We can also provide a laundry list of errors and contradictions in your Koran.

Do you want to exchange weblinks...?
plz be my quest to put the so-called errors list from Quran
 

Islam432

Practicing Muslim
False.

The Holy Bible was written in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek.
Again , the original text in which Bible was revealed on Prophet Jesus(Pbuh) was Hebrew , and the original manuscript has been lost , only few verses are left which are in Hebrew
Why does the term "Muhammad" appear in the context of Jesus' Parable of the Growing Seed...as found only in the Gospel of Mark, chapter 4....?
Isn't it obvious the coming Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) was foretold by Jesus(pbuh)

Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) in the New Testament:


Al-Qur'an Chapter 61 Verse 6:

"And remember, Jesus, the son of Mary, said, 'O Children of Israel! I am the messenger of Allah (sent) to you, confirming the Law (which came) before me and giving glad tidings of a messenger to come after me, whose name shall be Ahmed.' But when he came to them with clear signs, they said, 'This is evident sorcery!' "

All the prophecies mentioned in the Old Testament regarding Muhammad (pbuh) besides applying to the Jews also hold good for the Christians.

1. John chapter 14 verse 16:
"And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you forever."

2. Gospel of John chapter 15 verse 26:

"But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which
proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me."

3. Gospel of John chapter 16 verse 7:

"Nevertheless I tell you the truth; it is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not
come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you".

"Ahmed" or "Muhammad" meaning "the one who praises" or "the praised one" is almost the translation of the
Greek word Periclytos. In the Gospel of John 14:16, 15:26, and 16:7. The word 'Comforter' is used in the English translation for the Greek word Paracletos which means advocate or a kind friend rather than a comforter.
Paracletos is the warped reading for Periclytos. Jesus (pbuh) actually prophesised Ahmed by name. Even the
Greek word Paraclete refers to the Prophet (pbuh) who is a mercy for all creatures.

Some Christians say that the Comforter mentioned in these prophecies refers to the Holy Sprit. They fail to realise
that the prophecy clearly says that only if Jesus (pbuh) departs will the Comforter come. The Bible states that the
Holy Spirit was already present on earth before and during the time of Jesus (pbuh), in the womb of Elizabeth, and again when Jesus (pbuh) was being baptised, etc. Hence this prophecy refers to none other than Prophet
Muhammad (pbuh).

4. Gospel of John chapter 16 verse 12-14:

"I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now. Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth is
come, he will guide you unto all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come. He shall glorify me".

The Sprit of Truth, spoken about in this prophecy referes to none other than Prophet Muhammad (pbuh)

NOTE: All quotations of the Bible are taken from the King James Version.

Islamic Research Library
 

Bowman

Active Member
All version are same only they have different translation , and translations are bound to have errors even maybe 0.1% has its the work of humans

The oldest copies of the Koran are devoid of diactrical markings. These markings were artificially added later - of which, in many cases, completely changes the meaning of the original words.

Now...which version of the Koran do you follow....the original version without the diactrical markings or the abbrogated version that was altered at a later date...?




plz be my quest to put the so-called errors list from Quran


According to your book of faith, 1 day = 1,000 years (22.47 & 32.5).

According to your book of faith, the universe was created in 6 days (7.54, 10.3, 11.7, 25.59, 32.4, 50.38, & 57.4).

Now…applying some simple math we have 6 x 1,000 = 6,000 years for the creation of the Universe, according to the authors of the Koran.

Everyone knows that the Universe was not created in six thousand years...
 

Bowman

Active Member
Again , the original text in which Bible was revealed on Prophet Jesus(Pbuh) was Hebrew , and the original manuscript has been lost , only few verses are left which are in Hebrew

Completely wrong, again...

Had you bothered to study Jesus' quotes, then you would have observed that many of them came directly from the Greek Septuagint.

Further, the authors of the Koran have Jesus speaking in Arabic....talk about abrogation!




Isn't it obvious the coming Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) was foretold by Jesus(pbuh)

Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) in the New Testament:



Al-Qur'an Chapter 61 Verse 6:

"And remember, Jesus, the son of Mary, said, 'O Children of Israel! I am the messenger of Allah (sent) to you, confirming the Law (which came) before me and giving glad tidings of a messenger to come after me, whose name shall be Ahmed.' But when he came to them with clear signs, they said, 'This is evident sorcery!' "




وإذ قال عيسى ابن مريم يبني إسرءيل إني


رسول الله إليكم مصدقا لما بين يدي من التورية


ومبشرا برسول يأتي من بعدي اسمه أحمد فلما


جاءهم بالبينت قالوا هذا سحر مبين


Wa-ith qala AAeesa ibnu maryama ya banee isra-eela innee rasoolu Allahi ilaykum musaddiqan lima bayna yadayya mina alttawrati wamubashshiran birasoolin ya/tee min baAAdee ismuhu ahmadu falamma jaahum bialbayyinati qaloo hathasihrun mubeenun

61.6 And when Jesus, Mary's son, said: “Myson’sof Israel, I came, “allah's”
messenger to you; fulfilling the truth altogether manifestbefore, from the scriptures of the Jews and Christians; and one who rejoices anotheron account of a messenger; He comes from after thee, Hisname should be praised.” So when He came to them on account ofthemanifest evidences, they said:“Heobviouslyallies himself to the devil.”



61.6 paraphrases Jesus’ quote from Malachi, which pertains to John the Baptist preparing the way for Him, as recorded in the Biblical Gospels.


Let’s summarize exactly what is being stated in 61.6…

  • Jesus quotes from the Old Testament (alttawrati).
  • Jesus is quoted as saying that He, Himself came (innee) as the one spoken of from BOTH the OT (alttawrati); AND from the one who rejoices another (mubashshiran).
  • Observe that the text specifically stresses two vantage points that Jesus Himself fulfills and confirms as truth:
1) Before, from the OT (alttawrati).

&

2) After, from the one who rejoices Him (mubashshiran...i.e. John the Baptist).


  • Jesus proclaims that He fulfills both the OT scripture, & that of John the Baptist’ proclamation of Him.
  • The one who rejoices another (wamubashshiran…i.e. John the Baptist) appears in only three Koranic locations (34.45, 48.8, & 61.6) and refers to this praiseworthy man (i.e Jesus). Observe that the two other locations are in the context of “Muhammad” (i.e. Jesus).
  • Further, the one who rejoices does so on account of a “messenger” (birasoolin).
  • We are told that this “messenger” is a man that comes (ya/tee) from after thee (baAAdee).
  • This “messenger’s” name (ismuhu) is worthy of praise (ahmadu). Thus, just like the participle “Muhammad”, “ahmadu” refers to a man that is praised as deity.
  • The implication of Jesus’ statement in the Koran is profound, as He is proclaiming that He is the Lord that John the Baptist has prepared the way for. Jesus is claiming to be God Almighty in this ayah!
  • The sequence marker “fa” (signifying cause & effect), then connects what we were just told regarding Jesus’ fulfillment of the scriptures, to His reception by some of the people – who though that He allied Himself to the devil.
 

Bowman

Active Member
All the prophecies mentioned in the Old Testament regarding Muhammad (pbuh) besides applying to the Jews also hold good for the Christians.

1. John chapter 14 verse 16:
"And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you forever."

2. Gospel of John chapter 15 verse 26:

"But when the Comforter is come, whom I will send unto you from the Father, even the Spirit of truth, which
proceedeth from the Father, he shall testify of me."

3. Gospel of John chapter 16 verse 7:

"Nevertheless I tell you the truth; it is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not
come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you".

"Ahmed" or "Muhammad" meaning "the one who praises" or "the praised one" is almost the translation of the
Greek word Periclytos. In the Gospel of John 14:16, 15:26, and 16:7. The word 'Comforter' is used in the English translation for the Greek word Paracletos which means advocate or a kind friend rather than a comforter.
Paracletos is the warped reading for Periclytos. Jesus (pbuh) actually prophesised Ahmed by name. Even the
Greek word Paraclete refers to the Prophet (pbuh) who is a mercy for all creatures.

Some Christians say that the Comforter mentioned in these prophecies refers to the Holy Sprit. They fail to realise
that the prophecy clearly says that only if Jesus (pbuh) departs will the Comforter come. The Bible states that the
Holy Spirit was already present on earth before and during the time of Jesus (pbuh), in the womb of Elizabeth, and again when Jesus (pbuh) was being baptised, etc. Hence this prophecy refers to none other than Prophet
Muhammad (pbuh).

4. Gospel of John chapter 16 verse 12-14:

"I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now. Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth is
come, he will guide you unto all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come. He shall glorify me".

The Sprit of Truth, spoken about in this prophecy referes to none other than Prophet Muhammad (pbuh)

NOTE: All quotations of the Bible are taken from the King James Version.

Islamic Research Library


You would think that followers of islam would abandon this tired argument and actually read the context of what they slavishly google from islamic polemic websites.

The 'comforter' is the Holy Spirit, brother.....why not take some time and read what you are slavishly googling....
 

Islam432

Practicing Muslim
The oldest copies of the Koran are devoid of diactrical markings. These markings were artificially added later - of which, in many cases, completely changes the meaning of the original words.

Now...which version of the Koran do you follow....the original version without the diactrical markings or the abbrogated version that was altered at a later date...?
Buddy you concepts about Quran are skew, there is only one version of Quran in entire world

According to your book of faith, 1 day = 1,000 years (22.47 & 32.5).

According to your book of faith, the universe was created in 6 days (7.54, 10.3, 11.7, 25.59, 32.4, 50.38, & 57.4).

Now…applying some simple math we have 6 x 1,000 = 6,000 years for the creation of the Universe, according to the authors of the Koran.

Everyone knows that the Universe was not created in six thousand years...
Lol , its actually Bible says that world was created in six days 24hours period

GE 1:3-5 On the first day, God created light, then separated light and darkness.
GE 1:14-19 The sun (which separates night and day) wasn't created until the fourth day.
GE 1:11-12 , 26-27 Trees were created before man was created.
GE 2:4-9 Man was created before trees were created.
GE 1:20-21 , 26-27 Birds were created before man was created.
GE 2:7 , 19 Man was created before birds were created.
GE 1:24-27 Animals were created before man was created.
GE 2:7 , 19 Man was created before animals were created.
GE 1:26-27 Man and woman were created at the same time.
GE 2:7 , 21-22 Man was created first, woman sometime later.


EX 34:6 , DT 7:9-10, TS 1:2 God is faithful and truthful. He does not lie.
2TH 2:11-12 God deludes people, making them believe what is false, so as to be able to condemn them. (Note: some versions use the word persuade here. The context makes clear, however, that deception is involved.)
EX 34:6-7 , JS 24:19, 1CH 16:34 God is faithful, holy and good.
IS 45:6-7 , LA 3:8, AM 3:6 God is responsible for evil.
EX 34:6-7 , HE 9:27 God remembers sin, even when it has been forgiven.
JE 31:34 God does not remember sin when it has been forgiven.
DT 6:15, 9:7-8, 29:20, 32:21 God is sometimes angry.
MT 5:22 Anger is a sin
1SA 9:15-17 The Lord tells Samuel that Saul has been chosen to lead the Israelites and will save them from the Philistines.
1SA 15:35 The Lord is sorry that he has chosen Saul.
1SA 31:4-7 Saul commits suicide and the Israelites are overrun by the Philistines
source
Bible Inconsistencies: Bible Contradictions?

i can point out a thousand more (historical,mathematics,scientific etc)mistakes from bible


What Quran says universe was created in six long periods , the Arabic word 'Qaum' was used which means a long period , and yes according to Quran one day is equal to 1000 years but here it doesn't mentions day
 
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Islam432

Practicing Muslim
Completely wrong, again...

Had you bothered to study Jesus' quotes, then you would have observed that many of them came directly from the Greek Septuagint.
Yes i have read Bible , and i think you haven't

'Eli Eli lama sabachthani 'Hebrew quotation'

Oh God Oh God (my God my God) why did you forsake me' Mathew 27:46?

This is the only Hebrew quotation in New-Testament ,like i said the original language in which 'Injeel' not current Bible revealed on Prophet Jesus(pbuh)

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bible

Further, the authors of the Koran have Jesus speaking in Arabic....talk about abrogation!
Ofc , Prophet Muhammad (Pbuh) spoke Arabic , its natural Allah gave him revelation in the language he talked , not another language bcz he wouldn't have understood



وإذ قال عيسى ابن مريم يبني إسرءيل إني


رسول الله إليكم مصدقا لما بين يدي من التورية


ومبشرا برسول يأتي من بعدي اسمه أحمد فلما


جاءهم بالبينت قالوا هذا سحر مبين


Wa-ith qala AAeesa ibnu maryama ya banee isra-eela innee rasoolu Allahi ilaykum musaddiqan lima bayna yadayya mina alttawrati wamubashshiran birasoolin ya/tee min baAAdee ismuhu ahmadu falamma jaahum bialbayyinati qaloo hathasihrun mubeenun

61.6 And when Jesus, Mary's son, said: “Myson’sof Israel, I came, “allah's”
messenger to you; fulfilling the truth altogether manifestbefore, from the scriptures of the Jews and Christians; and one who rejoices anotheron account of a messenger; He comes from after thee, Hisname should be praised.” So when He came to them on account ofthemanifest evidences, they said:“Heobviouslyallies himself to the devil.”



61.6 paraphrases Jesus’ quote from Malachi, which pertains to John the Baptist preparing the way for Him, as recorded in the Biblical Gospels.


Let’s summarize exactly what is being stated in 61.6…

  • Jesus quotes from the Old Testament (alttawrati).
  • Jesus is quoted as saying that He, Himself came (innee) as the one spoken of from BOTH the OT (alttawrati); AND from the one who rejoices another (mubashshiran).
  • Observe that the text specifically stresses two vantage points that Jesus Himself fulfills and confirms as truth:
1) Before, from the OT (alttawrati).

&

2) After, from the one who rejoices Him (mubashshiran...i.e. John the Baptist).


  • Jesus proclaims that He fulfills both the OT scripture, & that of John the Baptist’ proclamation of Him.
  • The one who rejoices another (wamubashshiran…i.e. John the Baptist) appears in only three Koranic locations (34.45, 48.8, & 61.6) and refers to this praiseworthy man (i.e Jesus). Observe that the two other locations are in the context of “Muhammad” (i.e. Jesus).
  • Further, the one who rejoices does so on account of a “messenger” (birasoolin).
  • We are told that this “messenger” is a man that comes (ya/tee) from after thee (baAAdee).
  • This “messenger’s” name (ismuhu) is worthy of praise (ahmadu). Thus, just like the participle “Muhammad”, “ahmadu” refers to a man that is praised as deity.
  • The implication of Jesus’ statement in the Koran is profound, as He is proclaiming that He is the Lord that John the Baptist has prepared the way for. Jesus is claiming to be God Almighty in this ayah!
  • The sequence marker “fa” (signifying cause & effect), then connects what we were just told regarding Jesus’ fulfillment of the scriptures, to His reception by some of the people – who though that He allied Himself to the devil.

Ive read Old-Testament too , again your concepts are completely vague ,let me clrify them to you

Starting with Quran
The Qur’an mentions in Surah Al-Araf chapter 7 verse 157:

"Those who follow the Messenger, the unlettered Prophet, whom they find mentioned in their own (scriptures) in the law and the Gospel".


1. MUHAMMAD (PBUH) PROPHESISED IN THE BOOK OF DEUTERONOMY:

Almighty God speaks to Moses in Book of Deuteronomy chapter 18 verse 18:

"I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and I will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him."

The Christians say that this prophecy refers to Jesus (pbuh) because Jesus (pbuh) was like Moses (pbuh). Moses (pbuh) was a Jew, as well as Jesus (pbuh) was a Jew. Moses (pbuh) was a Prophet and Jesus (pbuh) was also a Prophet.

If these two are the only criteria for this prophecy to be fulfilled, then all the Prophets of the Bible who came after
Moses (pbuh) such as Solomon, Isaiah, Ezekiel, Daniel, Hosea, Joel, Malachi, John the Baptist, etc. (pbut) will
fulfill this prophecy since all were Jews as well as prophets.

However, it is Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) who is like Moses (pbuh):

i) Both had a father and a mother, while Jesus (pbuh) was born miraculously without any male intervention.

[Mathew 1:18 and Luke 1:35 and also Al-Qur'an 3:42-47]

ii) Both were married and had children. Jesus (pbuh) according to the Bible did not marry nor had children.

iii) Both died natural deaths. Jesus (pbuh) has been raised up alive. (4:157-158)

Muhammad (pbuh) is from among the brethren of Moses (pbuh). Arabs are brethren of Jews. Abraham (pbuh) had two sons: Ishmail and Isaac (pbut). The Arabs are the descendants of Ishmail (pbuh) and the Jews are the descendants of Isaac (pbuh).

Words in the mouth:

Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) was unlettered and whatever revelations he received from Almighty God he repeated them verbatim.

"I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him."

[Deuteronomy 18:18]

iv) Both besides being Prophets were also kings i.e. they could inflict capital punishment. Jesus (pbuh) said, "My kingdom is not of this world." (John 18:36).

v) Both were accepted as Prophets by their people in their lifetime but Jesus (pbuh) was rejected by his
people. John chapter 1 verse 11 states, "He came unto his own, but his own received him not."

iv) Both brought new laws and new regulations for their people. Jesus (pbuh) according to the Bible did not bring any new laws. (Mathew 5:17-18).

2. It is Mentioned in the book of Deuteronomy chapter 18:19

"And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will not harken unto my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him."

3. Muhammad (pbuh) is prophesised in the book of Isaiah:

It is mentioned in the book of Isaiah chapter 29 verse 12:

"And the book is delivered to him that is not learned, saying, Read this, I pray thee: and he saith, I am not learned."

When Archangel Gabrail commanded Muhammad (pbuh) by saying Iqra - "Read", he replied, "I am not learned".

4. prophet Muhammad (pbuh) mentioned by name in the old testament:

Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) is mentioned by name in the Song of Solomon chapter 5 verse 16:

"Hikko Mamittakim we kullo Muhammadim Zehdoodeh wa Zehraee Bayna Jerusalem."

"His mouth is most sweet: yea, he is altogether lovely. This is my beloved, and this is my friend, O daughters
of Jerusalem."

In the Hebrew language im is added for respect. Similarely im is added after the name of Prophet Muhammad
(pbuh) to make it Muhammadim. In English translation they have even translated the name of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) as "altogether lovely", but in the Old Testament in Hebrew, the name of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) is yet present.
 
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