exchemist
Veteran Member
To your first question, the body of religious scholarship I have drawn your attention to (N.B. it is not a question of what I think) indeed considers the "image" term does not mean something literally visible.So when it says he is the image of the invisible God you don't think that implies being able to see something?
When he says if you have SEEN me you have SEEN the Father, you think it has nothing to do with seeing?
To your second question, the context (always important not to quote mine ) is that Jesus is replying to a demand from Philip: "Show us the Father". The reply, which Jesus goes on to spell out at length, with: "I am in the Father and the Father is in me" etc is saying he and the Father are one and the same. It is not saying "the Father looks like a regular guy just like me, to the eye". That would be quite ridiculous. It would make a nonsense of the concept of the Incarnation for a start. The whole thing about the Incarnation is Verbum caro factum est, the Word was made flesh, i.e. God took the form of a human being to get close to us and teach us. So clearly he did not have human form before the Incarnation took place.