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The Jesus Myth

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fallingblood

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
jelly said:
why cry about it.
you know that historical jesus and biblical jesus is the same figure you said so.
why use a strawman argument of one existing and one not existing to create the thread?
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:facepalm::facepalm:

You didn't read the OP. You haven't read the vast majority of what has been said. And now you make an asinine remark based on that ignorance.

If you read the OP, I was talking about the Jesus myth, and whether or not it is true. I pretty much stated it just like that. More so, I defined what the Jesus myth is later on, when asked to do so.

Finally, I didn't say that the Historical Jesus and the Biblical Jesus were the same figure. I made a distinction. If I thought they were the same person, it would have been a waste of time for me to define both figures.

And I never said that one didn't exist. I believe that Jesus existed.

There is only a strawman if you close one eye, and with the other, read something that you fabricated.
 
Dirty Penguin

Dirty Penguin

Master Of Ceremony
jelly said:
are you saying you are uncertain that the name of the guy the bible refers to is possibly incorrect/correct?
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I'm not uncertain about the names of the person described in the 4 gospels. What is uncertain is the events...maybe the places and the names of other people written about in the 4 gospels.
 
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AmbiguousGuy

Well-Known Member
fallingblood said:
They lived in an oral culture in which people passed on information by word of mouth. The reason was because the vast majority were illiterate, and even less could write (people who could write well, about 1% or lower in Palestine). And peasants in general, never received the education in reading. When we realize that Jesus's followers were basically all peasants, or of the lower class, it is no surprise that no one was able to write about him.
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So all of that changed in the 50 years after Jesus died? There was a great shift toward literacy?
 
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angellous_evangellous

Guest
AmbiguousGuy said:
So all of that changed in the 50 years after Jesus died? There was a great shift toward literacy?
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No. Widespread literacy is a modern phenomenon, stemmed from the idea that poor people are worth educating. It doesn't happen until long after the printing press was invented, and as I recall, it may have shifted during or just after the French Revolution.

The churches were lucky if they had one person who could read to everyone.
 
Dirty Penguin

Dirty Penguin

Master Of Ceremony
jelly said:
why are you not uncertain about the name?
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Opps..that was a typo on my part.

I'm certain the 4 gospels are talking about Yeshua (commonly transliterated as Jesus). What i can't be certain of is the events that are said to have taken place by certain people involved actually happened. Example: The census or later on..the bounty out for the first born males......
 
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angellous_evangellous

Guest
Jayhawker Soule said:
<yawn> troll </yawn>
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A troll perhaps.

I know that it's difficult to admit to yourself that another human being can be delusionally irrational.

But alas, such people do exist, in which case "troll" is an excessively compassionate compliment.
 
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AmbiguousGuy

Well-Known Member
angellous_evangellous said:
No. Widespread literacy is a modern phenomenon, stemmed from the idea that poor people are worth educating. It doesn't happen until long after the printing press was invented, and as I recall, it may have shifted during or just after the French Revolution.

The churches were lucky if they had one person who could read to everyone.
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Yes, I understand all of that. I'm asking why there were literate people 50 years after Jesus' death, but none at the time of his death.

Why did the gospel writers wait 50 years?
 
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angellous_evangellous

Guest
AmbiguousGuy said:
Yes, I understand all of that. I'm asking why there were literate people 50 years after Jesus' death, but none at the time of his death.

Why did the gospel writers wait 50 years?
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Ah, the literacy rate was no different during or after the death of Jesus.

There are many factors that play into the long length of time between in life of Jesus and the writing of the Gospels.

1) There was no need to rush the writing process because people didn't read

2) There was no need for writing for something to be considered a valid fact

3) The spoken word was more valued than the written word because the written word was used to deceive

4) Writing was expensive, and early Christians were poor (for the most part)

5) Maybe most importantly, the Gospels were not written until the apostles and their close associates were almost all gone - that gave some expediancy to the need to have the Gospels codified.
 
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