Isaac was a prototype of Jesus, and both were born of parents who had been sired by the one father, but by two different mothers, both Sarah and Mary were told by angels that they would conceive and bear a son, both sons were born of God’s promise according to the working of God’s spirit and both were offered up as a sacrifice by their fathers on Mt Moriah .
Isaac was a prototype of the People of Israel. Isaac was sired by Abraham and Jesus was sired by Joseph. And I do not recall to have ever read that an angel told Sara that she would conceive and bear a son.
Jesus was born of the flesh as all are born, but born of the spirit when he rose from the baptismal waters and was filled with the spirit of the Lord that descended upon him in the form of a dove, as the voice from heaven was heard to say, "You are my beloved in whom I am Pleased, this day I have begotten you, see the more ancient authorities of Luke 3: 23.
This is NT rhetoric. God said the same thing about Israel. "Israel is My son; let My son go, so that he may serve Me." (Exo. 4:22,23)
The author of the gospel of Mark, who is believed to have been Mark the son of Peter, and the gospel according to the words of John the beloved disciple of Jesus, begin their account of the life of the chosen heir to the throne of Godhead, at the Baptism and spiritual birth of Jesus, and ignore his physical birth as totally irrelevant.
A talk like that sounds in the ears of Jews as Greek Mythology. Since Jesus was a religious Jews, it's not true.
Unlike the Hebrew language that has a specific term for virgin "Bethulah," which Isaiah does not use in his famous prophecy, but instead uses the Hebrew word "Almah," which means (Concealment--unmarried female) the Greek language had no specific word for unmarried female, and Matthew, in his attempt to translate into Greek the famous prophecy of Isaiah, that an unmarried female would conceive and bear a son etc; was forced to use the Greek word 'parthenos' which carries the basic meaning of unmarried girl and denotes virgin only by implication , and Isaiah and Matthew were in no way implying any such thing.
At least, you are a little better than the adepts of "Betulah".
Luke reveals that Mary who had never known a man sexually, was told by Gabriel the angel of the Greeks, (Michael being the angel of the Israelites,) that she was going to conceive and bear a son, and when she went to the gathering of the family members of Elizabeth who had gone to rejoice with her, owing to her pregnancy in her old age, and there she apparently met for the first time, the biological father of Jesus to whom she was spiritually attracted, as he had been sired by the same father as she, and the act of conception was concealed in the shadow beneath the wings of the Lord of spirits who had overshadowed them. I doubt very much that Joseph the Levite from Cyprus, who had been sired by Heli the father of Mary, or Mary herself, realised at that time they were related.
You are either Gnostic or a follower of Mysticism. I am not an adept of any.
Hebrew 5: 7-14; “In his life on earth, Jesus made his prayers and requests with loud cries and tears to God who could save him from death. Even though he was an Israelite and therefore, A son of God, (Psalms 82: 6, In speaking to the Israelites the Lord had said, “You are gods.” I said, “All of you are sons of the Most High.” He learnt to be obedient to our indwelling Father through suffering, and when he was made perfect, and the Lord could then reveal himself to us through his obedient servant who had learnt to do and say only that which he was commanded by the Lord, and be the fulfilment of the prophecy in Deuteronomy 18: 18, the one who the Lord would choose from among the Israelites and send him to speak in his name and do and say only that which he was commanded.
The prophecy of Deuteronomy 18:18 found fulfilment in Joshua and not Jesus. Theis wa a Jewish prophecy, which must be linterpreted Jewishly and not according to the tenets of Christianity.
After he had been brought to perfection through his sufferings, God then declared him to be high priest in the line of succession to Melchizedek the King and high priest of Salem, (King=Judah, priest=Levi). Jesus did not take that honour upon himself, Instead, after he had been brought to perfection, God made him high priest with these words as he rose from the baptismal waters, see Hebrew 5: 5; “Thou art my son, today I have begotten thee.”
The only reference to God's son is in Exodus 4:22,23, when He says that Israel is His son.
Acts 3: 13; the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, has given divine glory to his servant Jesus.
That's not what Isaiah says in 44:23. He says that Israel is what God uses to glorify Himself in the world.
Acts 17: 31; “For He (the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob,) has fixed a day (The day of the Lord which is the seventh period of one thousand years from the day in which Adam had eaten from the tree of the knowledge of what is good and bad and had died in that day at the age of 930) in which he will judge the whole world with justice by means of a man he has chosen. He has given proof of this to everyone by raising that man from death.
God Himself would never cause a contradiction to His own Word. Resurrection is a contradiction to the Scriptures.
Isaiah 42: 1; =Matthew 12: 18; The Lord says, “Here is my servant, whom I strengthen—the one I have chosen, with whom I am pleased. I have filled him with my spirit, and he will bring justice to every nation.”
Great! Now, read Isaiah 41:8,9; 44:1,2,21; 45:4. Isaiah identifies that Servant with Israel by name, so that you won't have to assume that he was Jesus.