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The Myths of Christianity

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
Then who is the Messiah of Daniel 9 vs25,26?
The weeks of years Daniel wrote about marked the time frame for the people.
Why were the people of the first century in expectation [Luke 3v15] of the Messiah if there was no indication?
Not Jesus, according to the Jews. The author of Daniel had no concept of Jesus. The 1st century people were in expectation just as their earlier ancestors had been in expectation, and just as we are in expectation.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
Not Jesus, according to the Jews. The author of Daniel had no concept of Jesus. The 1st century people were in expectation just as their earlier ancestors had been in expectation, and just as we are in expectation.

Daniel would not have known who would prove to be the Messiah mentioned at Daniel 9vs25,26, but does that mean that Daniel's prophecy of weeks of years [vs27] would not pin point to the first-century time of Christ?
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
Daniel would not have known who would prove to be the Messiah mentioned at Daniel 9vs25,26, but does that mean that Daniel's prophecy of weeks of years [vs27] would not pin point to the first-century time of Christ?
Once again, prophecy isn't a future prediction. It's a statement about they way things are in a world understood to have its being in God.
 

McBell

Unbound
Once again, prophecy isn't a future prediction. It's a statement about they way things are in a world understood to have its being in God.
Since when?
"WordNet (r) 2.0"
prophecy
n
1: knowledge of the future (usually said to be obtained from a
divine source)
2: a prediction uttered under divine inspiration​
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
Since when?
"WordNet (r) 2.0"
prophecy
n
1: knowledge of the future (usually said to be obtained from a
divine source)
2: a prediction uttered under divine inspiration​
Of course, you realize that prophecy was invented before WordNet?...
it just may be possible that WordNet ignored the theological stance in its definition...
 

McBell

Unbound
Of course, you realize that prophecy was invented before WordNet?...
it just may be possible that WordNet ignored the theological stance in its definition...
*yawn*
Webster's 1828 Dictionary
Prophesy
PROPH'ESY, v.t. To foretell future events; to predict.

I hate him, for he doth not prophesy good concerning

me, but evil. 1 Ki 22.

1. To foreshow. [Little used.]

PROPH'ESY, v.i. To utter predictions; to make declaration of events to come. Jer 11.
Perhaps you would be so kind as to present the source of your preferred definition?
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
*yawn*
Webster's 1828 Dictionary
Prophesy
PROPH'ESY, v.t. To foretell future events; to predict.

I hate him, for he doth not prophesy good concerning

me, but evil. 1 Ki 22.

1. To foreshow. [Little used.]

PROPH'ESY, v.i. To utter predictions; to make declaration of events to come. Jer 11.
Perhaps you would be so kind as to present the source of your preferred definition?
*Yawn*
Westminster Dictionary of Theological Terms

PROPHECY (Gr. propheteia, Lat. prophetia)
Speaking on behalf of God to communicate God's will for a situation.

PROPHET (Heb. nabi', Gr. prophetes, "one who announces")
One who speaks on behalf of God to God's people, most prominently the Hebrew prophets whose writings are found in the Old Testament.

Since "prophecy" (especially in our context here) is a theological term, the theological dictionary trumps Webster.:clap
 

McBell

Unbound
*Yawn*
Westminster Dictionary of Theological Terms

PROPHECY (Gr. propheteia, Lat. prophetia)
Speaking on behalf of God to communicate God's will for a situation.

PROPHET (Heb. nabi', Gr. prophetes, "one who announces")
One who speaks on behalf of God to God's people, most prominently the Hebrew prophets whose writings are found in the Old Testament.

Since "prophecy" (especially in our context here) is a theological term, the theological dictionary trumps Webster.:clap
**yawn**
You forgot the Biblical references.
Take you time.
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
**yawn**
You forgot the Biblical references.
Take you time.
The obvious: Isaiah 6; Jeremiah 1 (esp. through vs. 10); Ezekiel 2:1-4; Daniel 2:20-23; Hosea 1:2; Joel 1:1,2:28. These, I believe, make it quite clear that the prophet is meant to be God's mouthpiece.

Cheerfully provided, although you certainly haven't provided any compelling Biblical argument that the basis for prophecy is fortune-telling.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
The basis for prophecy is Scripture. Jesus prophesied using Scripture.
Explaining Scriptures for Christians is prophesying.
 

McBell

Unbound
The obvious: Isaiah 6; Jeremiah 1 (esp. through vs. 10); Ezekiel 2:1-4; Daniel 2:20-23; Hosea 1:2; Joel 1:1,2:28. These, I believe, make it quite clear that the prophet is meant to be God's mouthpiece.

Cheerfully provided, although you certainly haven't provided any compelling Biblical argument that the basis for prophecy is fortune-telling.
realy?
You do not see it?
Sad that.
But ok, I do concede that the word prophecy is more than just future predictions.
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
The basis for prophecy is Scripture. Jesus prophesied using Scripture.
Explaining Scriptures for Christians is prophesying.
Weeell...
Mk.

I basically agree, although I would remind you that Isaiah didn't prophesy with scripture. What he said became scripture. The basis for prophecy is God's truth. And explaining the truth of scripture can be prophetic.
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
realy?
You do not see it?
Sad that.
But ok, I do concede that the word prophecy is more than just future predictions.
When the prophet speaks, s/he speaks God's truth. The acceptance or rejection of that truth forms what the outcome may be (which usually takes the form of a "prediction.") However, that outcome always points to God, and not to "generic future events."
 

Muffled

Jesus in me
No, that is an interpretation that is unsupported.

I am reminded of doctors who hearing about people being healed at a healing session attributed it to natural causes.

That is like saying that the magician who pulls a rabbit out of a hat did so because the rabbit was in the hat, lol.

God said people would be blessed through Abraham and they are blessed through Jesus a descendant of Abraham in every nation. I don't see any disjunction between the promise and the fulfillment of the promise.
 

Muffled

Jesus in me
The basis for prophecy is Scripture. Jesus prophesied using Scripture.
Explaining Scriptures for Christians is prophesying.

Only if God is giving the explanation.

Jesus prophesied without using scriptures. As God He can do that.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
Was he using the King James Version?

Did the apostles use the King James Version?_______

When Jesus quoted or referred to Scripture Jesus often prefaced his statements with, "It is written". Where was it written but in the 'Hebrew Scriptures' that were written in Hebrew, not Latin, not English.
 
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