The Translation Error Page - New Testament

[may]

Prehuman Existence. The person who became known as Jesus Christ did not begin life here on earth. He himself spoke of his prehuman heavenly life. (Joh 3:13; 6:38, 62; 8:23, 42, 58) John 1:1, 2 gives the heavenly name of the one who became Jesus, saying: "In the beginning the Word [Gr., Lo´gos] was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god ["was divine," AT; Mo; or "of divine being," Böhmer; Stage (both German)]. This one was in the beginning with God." Since Jehovah is eternal and had no beginning (Ps 90:2; Re 15:3), the Word’s being with God from "the beginning" must here refer to the beginning of Jehovah’s creative works. This is confirmed by other texts identifying Jesus as "the firstborn of all creation," "the beginning of the creation by God." (Col 1:15; Re 1:1; 3:14) Thus the Scriptures identify the Word (Jesus in his prehuman existence) as God’s first creation, his firstborn Son.

 

[McBell]

Yes, in fact, I've been able to locate over 80 scholarly sources which have opted to render the third clause of John 1:1 as, "and the Word was a god."

Perhaps you would be so kind as to present some of them here?
Links would be great, however, the citations would work as well.

 

[McBell]

Interesting, let's look at the inspired Joseph Smith version.

Acts 12:4
And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

Identicle...so this particular verse is in it's original Greek/English correct translation form, having been translated from the original, by God/Christ and then given, by inspiration, to Joseph Smith, who recorded it using a Urim and Thummim, given to him by God/Christ, which instrument is found in the Old Testament.

Note: Concerning this particular verse, the best Greek original text we now possess is intact. The original Greek should read "Easter," not "Passover".

What did Joseph Smith used as his base for his version?

I find it rather interesting that the vast majority of Bibles translate it as passover and NOT easter:

(ALT)
whom also having seized, he put in prison, having handed [him] over to four four-man squads of soldiers to be guarding him, intending after the Passover to bring him [before] the people.

(ASV)
And when he had taken him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to guard him; intending after the Passover to bring him forth to the people.

(BBE)
And having taken him, he put him in prison, with four bands of armed men to keep watch over him; his purpose being to take him out to the people after the Passover.

(CEV)
He put Peter in jail and ordered four squads of soldiers to guard him. Herod planned to put him on trial in public after the festival.

(Darby)
whom having seized he put in prison, having delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep, purposing after the passover to bring him out to the people.

(DRB)
And when he had apprehended him, he cast him into prison, delivering him to four files of soldiers, to be kept, intending, after the pasch, to bring him forth to the people.

(EMTV)
whom also seizing, he put him in prison, and handed him over to four four-man squads of soldiers to guard him, planning after the Passover to bring him again to the people.

(ESV)
And when he had seized him, he put him in prison, delivering him over to four squads of soldiers to guard him, intending after the Passover to bring him out to the people.

(GNB)
After his arrest Peter was put in jail, where he was handed over to be guarded by four groups of four soldiers each. Herod planned to put him on trial in public after Passover.

(GW)
After capturing Peter, Herod had him thrown into prison with sixteen soldiers in squads of four to guard him. Herod wanted to bring Peter to trial in front of the people after Passover.

(KJVR)
And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

(LITV)
whom also capturing him, he put him into prison, delivering him to four sets of four soldiers to guard him, intending to bring him up to the people after the Passover.

(MKJV)
And capturing him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four sets of four soldiers to keep him; intending to bring him out to the people after the Passover.

(Webster)
And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after the passover to bring him forth to the people.

(YLT)
whom also having seized, he did put in prison, having delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to guard him, intending after the passover to bring him forth to the people.
​

 

[McBell]

"Easter" is not a Mistranslation and I would add is part of the original Greek text, according to inspiration given to Joseph Smith, by Christ himself, who is the author of the New Testament.

Christ is the Word.

Wow.
I was completely unaware that you were fluent in Greek.

 

[McBell]

Mock if you will, inspiration trumps all current Greek/English translated "original" New Testament texts, Joseph Smith was that vehicle who restored the Greek/English translated text.

Also lived in Japan for 22 months, very familiar with European/Asian sentence structure.

Now you are sounding like Peter S Ruckman. <--Link
Next you will be saying that if the Greek and Hebrew disagrees with the Joseph Smith version that one is to throw out the Greek and Hebrew.

The difference is that when Peter S Ruckman uses that line of thought it is called King James Onlyism.

 

[McBell]

He did not translate the original Greek text, which has long since been altered, he simply used a Urim and Thummim, and recorded the New Testament Greek/English text as it was inspired/given to him.

Then his version is not a translation is it?
And since he did not translate anything, I would think that his version is completely irrelevant to the thread.

They are idiots, plain and simple.

Pascha (Greek) = Easter

See this link and translate it yourself: Greek-English Translator

Also see this link: "Easter" is not a Mistranslation

Clearly those who translate this particular greek word in Greek, as Passover, are in complete error.

Now you are being most inconsistent.
Did Joseph Smith TRANSLATE any thing or not?

 

[McBell]

Also see this link: "Easter" is not a Mistranslation

This is just to comical.
You have linked to a King James Onlyist site!!!

 

[FFH]

Now you are being most inconsistent.
Did Joseph Smith TRANSLATE any thing or not?

Never said he did, just pure inspiration from Christ, who is the Word.

Christ has created all language and is the author of the Old and New Testament.

Why not go to the source of this original Greek New Testament text, that being Christ, which is what Joseph Smith did.

Again, mock if you will, it makes no difference to those who know/possess the truth.

 

[FFH]

This is just to comical.
You have linked to a King James Onlyist site!!!

Again, translate it yourself, no need for any link: Greek-English Translator

Have you ever studied any other language other than English Mestemia ???

 

[FFH]

Mestemia, all I did was first verify that this particular New Testament verse was a correct inspired English translation, which according to Joseph Smith, it is, then translated the word back into Greek.

Concerning this particular verse; the King James is identicle to the Joseph Smith version.

Acts 12:4 (Joseph Smith inspired version)
And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

Read this scripture in it's context and you'll see why it can't be the Passover, because Easter was mentioned after the Feast of Unleavened Bread (Passover).

This link explains that: "Easter" is not a Mistranslation

 

[McBell]

I notice that you did not address the points I brought up.

Mainly:

you sound just like Peter S Ruckman
If the Joseph Smith Inspired version was not translated then it is irrelevant in a thread about translations
​

My study of Latin has no bearing whatsoever in a conversation that is not about translations.
Since this little off topic conversation of ours is about the Inspired Joseph Smith Version, which you state is not a translation, it makes no difference the translations rules and such.
Which is actually interesting when one realizes that you are pushing that something is 'translated' correctly when you are basing it on a non translation.

 

[FFH]

Another reason to use the ESV!

ESV Matthew 23:24 You blind guides, straining out a gnat and swallowing a camel!​

diu?li,zw filter out, strain out Mt 23:24.*

Verse number is wrong, other than that this is an inspired and correct verse of scripture.

Matthew 23:21 (Joseph Smith Inspired Version)
Ye blind guides, who strain at a gnat, and swallow a camel; who make yourselves appear unto men that ye would not commit the least sin, and yet ye yourselves, transgress the whole law.

 

[McBell]

Mestemia, I already know the current Greek is correct along with it's translation, because of inspiration given to Joseph Smith, from Jesus Christ.

This link just attempts to explain/show the reasons why, that's all. "Easter" is not a Mistranslation

Peter S Ruckman

And you might want to look over post #101 again.

 

[FFH]

Now you are sounding like Peter S Ruckman. <--Link
Next you will be saying that if the Greek and Hebrew disagrees with the Joseph Smith version that one is to throw out the Greek and Hebrew.

The difference is that when Peter S Ruckman uses that line of thought it is called King James Onlyism.

It's true, the King James is the most correct version we have, according to direct revelation/inspiration given to Joseph Smith, by Jesus Christ himself.

Joseph Smith restored the errors and missing texts, by inspiration from Jesus Christ, who is the original author. Why trust any other source other than the author, who is Jesus Christ ???

Joseph Smith Inspired Version of the Bible (Search Text)

 

[FFH]

Peter S Ruckman

And you might want to look over post #101 again.

Ah, yeah, true, not identicle.

Matthew 23:21 (Joseph Smith Inspired Version)
Ye blind guides, who strain at a gnat, and swallow a camel;...

Matthew 23:24 (English Standard Version)
You blind guides, straining out a gnat and swallowing a camel!

Matthew 23: 24 (King James)
Ye blind guides, which (grammatical error) strain at a gnat, and swallow a camel.

 

[FFH]

Here's an example from the New Testament:

ESV Matthew 7:24 "Everyone then who hears these words of mine and does them will be like a wise man who built his house on the rock.​

I have highlighted the Greek and Enlgish in blue. It is transliterated "tous logous."

BNT Matthew 7:24 Pa/j ou=n o[stij avkou,ei mou tou.j lo,gouj tou,touj kai. poiei/ auvtou,j( o`moiwqh,setai avndri. froni,mw|( o[stij wv|kodo,mhsen auvtou/ th.n oivki,an evpi. th.n pe,tran\​

Comparing ESV, JSIV and KJV

Again, wrong verse number, which indicates there are missing passages of scripture in this chapter, but that's about it.

Matthew 7:34
(Joseph Smith Inpired Version) Therefore, whosoever heareth these sayings of mine and doeth them, I will liken him unto a wise man, who built his house upon a rock, and the rains descended, and the floods came, and the winds blew, and beat upon that house, and it fell not; for it was founded upon a rock.

Matthew 7: 24-25 (King James)
24 Therefore whosoever heareth these sayings of mine, and doeth them, I will liken him unto a wise man, which (grammatical error) built his house upon a rock:

25 And the rain descended, and the floods came, and the winds blew, and beat upon that house; and it fell not: for it was founded upon a rock.

 

[McBell]

Why are you spamming this thread with irrelevant posts?

 

[FFH]

BNT Matthew 7:24 Pa/j ou=n o[stij avkou,ei mou tou.j lo,gouj (logos) tou,touj kai. poiei/ auvtou,j( o`moiwqh,setai avndri. froni,mw|( o[stij wv|kodo,mhsen auvtou/ th.n oivki,an evpi. th.n pe,tran\

The so-called "original" Greek is in error here, according to revelation given to Joseph Smith.​

Greek-English Translator

Saying = &#960;&#945;&#961;&#959;&#953;&#956;&#943;&#945;, &#961;&#951;&#964;&#972;paroimia, rito

Word = &#955;&#941;&#958;&#951;, &#955;&#972;&#947;&#959;&#962;, &#948;&#953;&#945;&#964;&#965;&#960;&#974;&#957;&#969;lexi, logos, diatypono

Seems your English Standard Version conveniently agrees with your posted Greek version.

 

[FFH]

Why are you spamming this thread with irrelevant posts?

Will be glad to promptly remove my posts here and place them in a new thread.

Give me a minute, mods please don't erase any of my posts, I will delete them all and put them into my own thread.

Edit: Okay just removed those posts I felt not in harmony with this thread.

Any other posts deemed not appropriate in this thread, will a mod or Angelous please inform me, and I will remove them from this thread.

Peace out...

 

[sojourner]

Good grief! Perfectly good thread shot to ****. Please visit A_E's last post for an appropriate response to the Smith Version.

And now for something completely different:

What about Romans 3:22? I understand that the Greek word for "in" can also be translated "of."
"The righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ..." may be translated as "The righteousness of God through the faith of Jesus Christ..."