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Watchtower Governing Body: Are They The Exclusive Channel For God??

djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
Christians DO have a clear understanding on these teachings. The understanding is there false. Mistranslated, bias, and error filled when you read the text in context and view it through All of scripture. The Watchtower was started in the late 1800's or around there. So does that mean God was without a witness for 1,900 years? So until the Great Watchtower Society came and lighted our path with there... Er... I mean the truth of the bible. So All the tens of thousands if not hundreds of thousands of Scholars for 1,900 years throughout the world who studied there whole lives got the doctrines of the bible wrong? And only the Watchtower got it right?
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Didn't you know the WT is in Bible prophecy?



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Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
One translator may choose different words or sentences, but the message is identical. Translation is a reliable science of communicating between different languages. Remember, it was God Himself who created all the language barriers in Genesis 11 at the Tower of Babel. God is satisfied that His inspired word can be maintained although translated into over 200 languages.
And Although the exact choice of words or sentence structure is different in each translation, the meaning is identical. Take the words of Jesus in Mark 16:16 from three "versions" as an example;
NIV: "Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved".
KJV: "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved".
NAS: "He who has believed and has been baptized shall be saved"
Different words and sentences but the meaning is identical. To blame religious division on the fact there are different Bible versions, therefore, is incorrect. The view that each translation of the Bible conveys a different message is also incorrect. There is only one Bible message that has been translated into hundreds of different languages.
However only the Watchtower in its New World Translation actively Changes the meaning of verses to fit it's own ideology. Which is why so many degreed scholars from all over the world have said it's corrupted by mans own hands.

Its very ironic that in a discussion about using correct translations and errors in translations and additions or subtractions, you choose to use Mark 16:16.

Do you know anything about the verses you are using? Are you sure they are the 'words of Jesus'??
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
The "GB" of the first spoke and taught as the Spirit led them. The GB of today speak and teach what they think they understand as a truth it's followers are commanded to accept. The apostles never demanded that everyone believe them.

All christian preachers/priests/pators teach what they think they understand as a truth and expect adherence to their interpretations. Thats why you believe what you do. Someone told you that is what it is. And you carry on their teachings.
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
William Schnell, author and former Jehovah's Witness, claims that three-quarters of the original Bible Students who had been associating with the Watch Tower Society in 1921 had left by 1931.[4][a][6] In 1930 Rutherford stated that "the total number of those who have withdrawn from the Society... is comparatively large."[7]
Between 1918 and 1929, several factions formed their own independent fellowships, including the Standfast Movement, the Pastoral Bible Institute, the Laymen's Home Missionary Movement founded by PSL Johnson, and the Dawn Bible Students Association. These groups range from conservative, claiming to be Russell's true followers, to more liberal, claiming that Russell's role is not as important as once believed.[8] Rutherford's faction of the movement retained control of the Watch Tower Society source:Bible Student movement - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Welcome to true Christendom, Pegg!

Where are those groups now and what has become of them?

Many fizzled out into nothing. Can we confirm if Gods blessing was with them? Where are they today? Do they participate in the preaching of the good news of the kingdom earthwide?
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
Christians DO have a clear understanding on these teachings. The understanding is there false. Mistranslated, bias, and error filled when you read the text in context and view it through All of scripture. The Watchtower was started in the late 1800's or around there. So does that mean God was without a witness for 1,900 years? So until the Great Watchtower Society came and lighted our path with there... Er... I mean the truth of the bible. So All the tens of thousands if not hundreds of thousands of Scholars for 1,900 years throughout the world who studied there whole lives got the doctrines of the bible wrong? And only the Watchtower got it right?
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Not at all. There were a number of bible scholars throughout the dark ages who got a lot right. They determined the Name Jehovah and wrote it in the bible. William Tyndale was the first english translator to do put the name into english.
There were scholars such as Cellarius’ who made remarks regarding the nature of Jesus Christ. Although he did not directly contradict the Trinity (it would have got him executed by the clergy) He distinguished the “Heavenly Father” from “his Son Jesus Christ” and wrote that Jesus was one of many gods and sons of the almighty God.
The Spanish theologian Michael Servetus used Bible texts to disprove the Trinity back in the 16th century.

There have been christians during those dark ages who did also come to the same conclusions as those early bible students.

But the reason why christians were in darkness for so long was foretold by Christs apostles way back in the first century.

“Oppressive wolves will enter in among you and will not treat the flock with tenderness, and from among you yourselves men will rise and speak twisted things to draw away the disciples after themselves.” (Acts 20:29, 30)

“There will also be false teachers among you. These very ones will quietly bring in destructive sects . . . , and on account of these the way of the truth will be spoken of abusively.”
2 Peter 2:1, 2.

Christianity was hijacked for a long time. But when Gods due time came around, he made truth freely available and many christians responded. They began to promote true bible teachings....not only the early bible students btw, there were other preachers who were teaching similar truths.
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
How did He make God's personal name known? Jesus never said it?

Are you saying that Jesus did not know what Gods name was?

The prophets of old knew the name....they wrote it in their scriputres over 7,000 times. Do you really believe that Jesus did not know that name?

BTW, there is evidence from outside sources that the name of God was being 'written' by the Christians in the first century.
  • Early Jewish writings indicate that Jewish Christians used the divine name in their writings. The Tosefta, a written collection of oral laws that was completed by about 300 C.E., says with regard to Christian writings that were burned on the Sabbath: “The books of the Evangelists and the books of the minim [thought to be Jewish Christians] they do not save from a fire. But they are allowed to burn where they are, they and the references to the Divine Name which are in them.” This same source quotes Rabbi Yosé the Galilean, who lived at the beginning of the second century C.E., as saying that on other days of the week, “one cuts out the references to the Divine Name which are in them [understood to refer to the Christian writings] and stores them away, and the rest burns.”
The reference to the christians writings containing the divine name in this jewish law book is evidence that Jesus did make known Gods name and the early christians were using it.

As apostate christians took over the congregations, they began hiding the divine name and omitting it from newer copies of the bible.

Shame on them and all who know and hide the divine name today.
 

Pegg

Jehovah our God is One
True, but as Christians we are commanded to preach the gospel and dispell any false gospel that leads people astray. The Watchtower qualifies so it is our duty to do so.

What do you do to preach the gospel into the world?
 

savagewind

Veteran Member
Premium Member
So how does Philippians 2:7 say Christ emptied Himself? “Grammatically, Paul explains the ‘emptying’ of Jesus in the next phrase: ‘Taking the form of a servant and coming in the likeness of men’” (Nelson's Illustrated Bible Dictionary). Unlike Adam and Eve, who made an attempt to seize equality with God (Genesis 3:5), Jesus, the last Adam (1 Corinthians 15:45), humbled Himself and obediently accepted the role of the bondservant. As N.T. Wright stated: “The real humiliation of the incarnation and the cross is that the one who was himself God, and who never during the whole process stopped being God, could embrace such a vocation” (1986, p. 346).
I think the part which says "in the likeness of man having been made" isn't about the man himself but about his work. Jesus took the role of The Word, the way, the truth and the life. God is MORE than the way, the truth and the life. They are not the same.


If one contends that Jesus was not divine while upon the Earth, then they make Him either a fraud or a madman.
A person can certainly be divine but not be YHVH.

Holy, holy holy is Jehovah God The Almighty. Is holy the same as divine? Or different? Are we ordered to be holy? I think so. Are we ordered to be YHVH?
 
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savagewind

Veteran Member
Premium Member
What do you do to preach the gospel into the world?
Maybe he talks to people he meets about it. Maybe he doesn't drive around all day using up gasoline for nothing most days.

So he doesn't publish millions upon millions of books, magazines and pamphlets. Maybe he is a tree lover.

They think they will get a hearing for their many words. Maybe he takes that to heart or not.
 

JayJayDee

Avid JW Bible Student
I shall start off with us having an immaterial soul and spirit if you will.
It is true that the Hebrew word for soul Is nephesh and that it can be used as reference to living beings. It can be found in Genesis 2:7. But it is not "limited" to that sense.
Genesis 2:7 is simply telling us what man IS (a living being) not what he IS NOT. In other words, while Genesis 2:7 affirms that man is a living being it doesn't deny we have a immaterial nature.

Can you tell me what the penalty was for eating the forbidden fruit in the garden of Eden?
Was Adam fully informed about what would happen to him if he wilfully broke the only command there was?
What sentence did God pass on him? (Gen 3:19)

Humans were created in much the same way as all other creatures of flesh and blood. But something gave him an advantage.....only he was created with the intellectual, moral and spiritual qualities of his Creator. And the only thing that could end his mortal life was disobedience to the only command that carried the death penalty.

It was God's first purpose to have a race of perfect, free willed beings living on this earth who would have his attributes and act as caretakers of all the other creatures who shared life with him. All creatures had a finite life cycle....except man. Only he had an expectation to live forever, without dying. But this would only come about by his continued obedience.

A rebel spirit son of God caused an upset in the beginning but not one that was too serious. Mankind lost their physical perfection and were barred from "the tree of life"...the one thing that guaranteed continued life. (Gen 3:22-24) God stepped in straight away with a solution....one that would test not only humankind, but also all of God's spirit creatures as well. He would allow freedom of choice without much intervention, to prove that his rule was superior and that human rule under the pretender's influence would not be successful. Sin and death would rule mankind from that time on, until the savior came offered his life to save them.
Humans, for now would have no advantage over the animals. (Eccl 3:19, 20)

If Adam and his wife had simply obeyed their God, they would still be alive today in global paradise conditions, working alongside all their progeny in complete peace and security.
Christ would never have been needed as a savior and God would have continued as king over humankind. No humans would have ever gone to heaven. Have you ever contemplated this?

The word Nephesh is also used in the Old Testament to speak of the seat of emotions and experiences.
Mans Nephesh can be...
Sad (Deuteronomy 28:65)
Grieved (Job 30:25)
In pain (Psalm 13:12)
Distressed (Genesis 42:21)
Bitter (Job 3:20)
Troubled (Psalm 6:3)
And Cheered (Psalm 86:4)
These scriptures show Nephesh also refers to the "inner man" WITHIN the ham being. This is consistent with verses like 2 Kings 4:27, where we read "The man of God said, 'Let her alone for her soul is troubled Within her." Also verses such as Psalm 42:6 and Psalm 43:5.

Can humans souls exist without emotions? It is after all, what makes us human. And Yet Solomon wrote...

"Ecclesiastes 9:3-6, 10...."This is the sad thing about all that happens under the sun: the same fate awaits everyone. Moreover, the human heart is full of evil; people’s minds are full of madness while they are alive, and afterward they die. Whoever is among the living can be certain about this. A living dog is definitely better off than a dead lion, because the living know that they will die. But the dead know nothing at all. There is no more reward for them; even the memory of them is lost. Their love and their hate, as well as their zeal, are already long gone. They will never again have a stake in all that happens under the sun....Whatever you are capable of doing, do with all your might because there’s no work, thought, knowledge, or wisdom in the grave, which is where you are headed." (CEB)

A person's emotions cease at death...'their love and their hate as well as their zeal are gone'. They have no ability to work, think or know anything because death renders them inactive. "The grave" is Sheol, the Hebrew equivalent of Hades.

The Soul Exists After Death:
In Matthew 10:28 Jesus says, "Do not fear those who kill the body but cannot kill the soul. Rather fear him who can destroy both soul and body in hell."
What Jesus is saying here is that there is something about you which those who kill you (in your physical being) cannot touch! That something is that aspect of man which continues to exist after the body has been lowered into the grave.
After all if the word 'soul' is just another way of referring to the whole person as the Watchtower society teaches, then wouldn't the soul die when the physical body dies?
How do you reconcile the Watchtower position with Matthew 10:28 which clearly indicates that it is possible to kill the body WITHOUT killing the soul?

Can I just clarify the one thing before we go on? The Watchtower Bible and Tract Society is a Bible publishing house, licensed under American law for the printing and distribution of large volumes of Bibles and literature.

We are Jehovah's Witnesses.

So first we need to discern the difference between "soul" and "spirit". They do not mean the same thing in Hebrew. A soul is never disembodied. Spirit (pneuma) means "breath".

This is where knowledge of the Bible's teaching to Israel comes in. The ancient Jews had no concept of life after death. Their hope of living again was by means of a resurrection......not drifting off to heaven as spirit, but of complete non-existence in "the grave" as Solomon said. All the resurrections performed in the Bible were returns to life as humans of flesh and blood. This is what the Jews believed, so this is what Jesus showed them by demonstration.

When Jesus calls the dead out of their graves, where does he call them from? (John 5:28, 29) The exact same place from where he called Lazarus....his tomb. Where was Lazarus before Jesus raised him? Jesus tells us in John 11:11-14...."Our friend Lazarus is sleeping, but I am going in order to wake him up.” The disciples said, “Lord, if he’s sleeping, he will get well.” They thought Jesus meant that Lazarus was in a deep sleep, but Jesus had spoken about Lazarus’ death. Jesus told them plainly, “Lazarus has died."

When Jesus said that we should not "fear those who can only kill the body but not the soul", he uses a word that most people miss. He said, "Rather fear him who can destroy both soul and body in hell." "Hell" in this scripture is "sheol" or "hades". So in hades (the grave) as Solomon had said, the dead know nothing. All future life prospects for humankind are tied up in their resurrection. Only God can "destroy" a soul by leaving it in death, never to awaken. This is what "Gehenna" meant to a Jew.....a death with no resurrection. There is no immortal soul in the Bible.
The soul is completely mortal...it dies. (Ezekiel 18:4)

Apostate Christianity adopted belief in an immortal soul from the platonic Greek notion of life after death.

In Luke 20:38 we read of Jesus' words to the Sadducees regarding the Old Testament saints Abraham, Isaac and Jacob: "He (God) is not the God of the dead but OF THE LIVING, for all live to Him."
According to the first century Jewish historian Flavius Josephus, "the doctrine of the Sadducees is this: that souls die with the bodies."
In Luke 20:38, Jesus contradicts the law of the Sadducees. In effect He is saying, "Abraham, Isaac and Jacob though they died many years ago, are actually living today. For God, who calls Himself the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, is not the God of the dead but of the living."
Jesus clearly indicates that these Old Testament patriarchs are living 'at this present moment' even though they died many years ago.
And the tense of the word for 'live' is not future but present teaching that they are living now.
There's many more instances to point out but you left me many things to write and it is getting rather late lol so you'll have to forgive my sleepiness.

Again, without belief in an immortal soul, Jesus words make sense in another way. The Sadducees did not believe in the resurrection. (Acts 23:8) Abraham, Isaac and Jacob had died and it was their belief in a resurrection when Messiah's kingdom came to the earth, that they would be restored to life. This was the reason that Abraham could offer up his son so willingly.....he figured that since all the messianic promises were made through Isaac, that God would simply raise him from the dead. Since all the promises were to be fulfilled on earth, then his future life prospects had to be earthly. (Heb 11:17-19) As far as God is concerned, it's as if all his faithful pre-Christian servants still live, but are just waiting in their graves for the call to come out. (Heb 11:39, 40) They are just "sleeping" from his perspective, as Jesus said.

Now it's my turn to hit the hay.....I will address your other posts tomorrow, Aussie time.
 

james2ko

Well-Known Member
Where are those groups now and what has become of them? Many fizzled out into nothing. Can we confirm if Gods blessing was with them? Where are they today? Do they participate in the preaching of the good news of the kingdom earthwide?

Yes some did fizzle out but others are still in existence. If you are going to use the fallacy of blessing, time of existence, and the extent of preaching the gospel (the gospel is much more than just the kingdom) as a gauge for the "true" church, I can think of a few who far surpass your organization in one and or all three. The point is Rutherford, your current sects founder, apostasized from the teachings of Russell and formed his own church. The very concept for which you condemn Christendom! That is being hypocritical to say the least. The very character trait condemned by Christ of the Pharisees. And as has been demonstrated in a prior reply to JD, (point 20 here) that is indicative of the character your organization exemplifies.


 
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djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
Are you saying that Jesus did not know what Gods name was?

The prophets of old knew the name....they wrote it in their scriputres over 7,000 times. Do you really believe that Jesus did not know that name?

BTW, there is evidence from outside sources that the name of God was being 'written' by the Christians in the first century.
  • Early Jewish writings indicate that Jewish Christians used the divine name in their writings. The Tosefta, a written collection of oral laws that was completed by about 300 C.E., says with regard to Christian writings that were burned on the Sabbath: “The books of the Evangelists and the books of the minim [thought to be Jewish Christians] they do not save from a fire. But they are allowed to burn where they are, they and the references to the Divine Name which are in them.” This same source quotes Rabbi Yosé the Galilean, who lived at the beginning of the second century C.E., as saying that on other days of the week, “one cuts out the references to the Divine Name which are in them [understood to refer to the Christian writings] and stores them away, and the rest burns.”
The reference to the christians writings containing the divine name in this jewish law book is evidence that Jesus did make known Gods name and the early christians were using it.

As apostate christians took over the congregations, they began hiding the divine name and omitting it from newer copies of the bible.

Shame on them and all who know and hide the divine name today.

Lol, I couldn't have expected any less of a JW. Look at my post very carefully, did I say Jesus didn't know God's name? I said He never used it. It never came out of His mouth. As recorded in the scriptures.

I agree with your evidence of the devine name, but it wasn't JEHOVAH, that is not God's name! The word JEHOVAH never came out of the mouth of anyone in the 1st century.
 

djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
BTW, there is evidence from outside sources that the name of God was being 'written' by the Christians in the first century.
  • Early Jewish writings indicate that Jewish Christians used the divine name in their writings. The Tosefta, a written collection of oral laws that was completed by about 300 C.E., says with regard to Christian writings that were burned on the Sabbath: “The books of the Evangelists and the books of the minim [thought to be Jewish Christians] they do not save from a fire. But they are allowed to burn where they are, they and the references to the Divine Name which are in them.” This same source quotes Rabbi Yosé the Galilean, who lived at the beginning of the second century C.E., as saying that on other days of the week, “one cuts out the references to the Divine Name which are in them [understood to refer to the Christian writings] and stores them away, and the rest burns.”


LMBO!! Your "EVIDENCE"

*** w08 8/1 p. 20 Should the Name Jehovah Appear in the New Testament? ***


Early Jewish writings indicate that Jewish Christians used the divine name in their writings. The Tosefta, a written collection of oral laws completed by about 300 C.E., says with regard to Christian writings that were burned on the Sabbath: “The books of the Evangelists and the books of the minim [thought to be Jewish Christians] they do not save from a fire. But they are allowed to burn where they are, . . . they and the references to the Divine Name which are in them.” This same source quotes Rabbi Yosé the Galilean, who lived at the beginning of the second century C.E., as saying that on other days of the week “one cuts out the references to the Divine Name which are in them [the Christian writings] and stores them away, and the rest burns.” Thus, there is strong evidence that the Jews living in the second century C.E. believed that Christians used Jehovah’s name in their writings.


You know in your heart this cannot be used as "TRUE" evidence. It could be "adjusted" tomorrow. Nothing the WT publishes can be used as proof of anything, because they could receive "NEW LIGHT" at any time.
 

djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
*** w80 2/1 p. 11 The Divine Name in Later Times ***

THE NAME “JEHOVAH” BECOMES WIDELY KNOWN

Interestingly, Raymundus Martini, a Spanish monk of the Dominican order, first rendered the divine name as “Jehova.” This form appeared in his book Pugeo Fidei, published in 1270 C.E.—over 700 years ago.

In time, as reform movements developed both inside and outside the Catholic Church, the Bible was made available to the people in general, and the name “Jehovah” became more widely known. In 1611 C.E. the King James or Authorized Version of the Bible was published. It uses the name Jehovah four times. (Ex. 6:3; Ps. 83:18; Isa. 12:2; 26:4) Since then, the Bible has been translated many, many times. Some translations follow the example of the Authorized Version and include the divine name only a few times.

In this category is An American Translation (by Smith and Goodspeed) with a slight variation of using “Yahweh” instead of “Jehovah.” Yet, one may ask: “Why have the translators done this? If using ‘Jehovah’ or ‘Yahweh’ is wrong, why put it in at all? If right, why not be consistent and use it every time it appears in the Bible text?”

Against the preceding historical and factual background, let us now examine what the translators say in answer. (emphasis mine)
 

djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
*** nwt p. 1735 A4 The Divine Name in the Hebrew Scriptures ***

Explaining why he used “Jehovah” instead of “Yahweh” in his 1911 work Studies in the Psalms, respected Bible scholar Joseph Bryant Rotherham said that he wanted to employ a “form of the name more familiar (while perfectly acceptable) to the general Bible-reading public.” In 1930 scholar A. F. Kirkpatrick made a similar point regarding the use of the form “Jehovah.” He said: “Modern grammarians argue that it ought to be read Yahveh or Yahaveh; but JEHOVAH seems firmly rooted in the English language, and the really important point is not the exact pronunciation, but the recognition that it is a Proper Name, not merely an appellative title like ‘Lord.’”
 

djhwoodwerks

Well-Known Member
*** nwt p. 1734 A4 The Divine Name in the Hebrew Scriptures ***

Why, then, does this translation use the form “Jehovah”? Because that form of the divine name has a long history in the English language.
 

JFish123

Active Member
Where are those groups now and what has become of them?

Many fizzled out into nothing. Can we confirm if Gods blessing was with them? Where are they today? Do they participate in the preaching of the good news of the kingdom earthwide?
If fizzling out means Gods Spirit wasn't upon them, then how can you say Christians who've proclaimed Jesus as God and a Trinity don't have God with them and there message if they haven't fizzled out for over 1,900 years?
That is a pretty long time and it doesn't look like that message of truth is stopping anytime soon. Remember the Pharisee told the others about Peter and the apostles teaching in Acts 5:38-39:
"Therefore, in the present case I advise you: Leave these men alone! Let them go! For if their purpose or activity is of human origin, it will fail. But if it is from God, you will not be able to stop these men; you will only find yourselves fighting against God."
The Truth that Jesus is God and there is a Trinity hasn't stopped for 1,900 years and has continued to grow for millennia because it's found throughout scripture. You'd think if the Watchtower has the truth that God wouldn't allow a false gospel to be preached sending people to hell for 1,900 years. So why didnt the so called discreet slave come earlier instead of 1,900 later where God Supposedly didn't have a witness for 2 millennia?
Which is more plausible, that God let a false gospel bd the main gospel preached around the world for thousands of years and didn't have a witness for 1,900 years. Or that it was the Truth and a sect that came 1,900 years later distorted the gospel to bake it say something it doesn't?
 
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