In this round of violence, which Hamas instigated, Hamas murdered innocents in cold blood, for no justifiable reason.
If Israel responds with aggression, then what did anyone expect?
Do you not see at least a little incongruity in these statements?
Violence inflicted against Israeli citizens = "no justifiable reason."
Violence inflicted against Palestinian citizens = "what did anyone expect?"
I'm not saying Hamas are any kind of freedom fighters, or that these incursions and killings of innocent civilians committed by Hamas are in any way representative of a Palestinian freedom movement against Israel (I think people who equate Hamas' actions with Palestinian resistance are doing a disservice to the Palestinian and Israeli people, and giving both Hamas and the Israeli far-right exactly what they want). But it
does strike me as odd when the senseless and indiscriminate killing of innocent people allegedly justified as a retaliatory strike against 70 years of occupation, settler colonialism and active oppression by the Israeli government is simply described as having "no justifiable reason", rather than being seen as an inevitable consequence of Israeli foreign policy that has been oppressing and murdering Palestinian people on an unimaginable scale for decades.
Meanwhile,
Israel responding to these attacks with
war crimes is seen as somehow inevitable and expected, if not reasonably justified under the circumstances.
My point is, "what did anyone expect" is obviously a very selectively applied standard. I can only say to that, that after 70 years of illegal occupation, forced relocation, thousands of deaths, war crimes and denial of basic rights, when an extremist militant group with a penchant for indiscriminate violence against civilians gains power and attacks you under the banner of some form of desperate resistance movement... What did anyone expect?