I hope you don't mind my candor.
The page starts with a presupposition - that the word hell is actually a Biblical word, when it isn't.
If you ask someone to define the word hell you will hear a variety of definitions.
It then uses that presupposition to make a statement that is not true.
The Bible uses words Hades, Sheol, and even Gehenna when referring to hell.
They did get something partially correct, but they did not go back far enough.
What is hell?
Webster’s Third New International Dictionary, unabridged, under “Hell” says: “fr[om] . . . helan to conceal.” The word “hell” thus originally conveyed no thought of heat or torment but simply of a ‘covered over or concealed place.’ In the old English dialect the expression “helling potatoes” meant, not to roast them, but simply to place the potatoes in the ground or in a cellar.
The meaning given today to the word “hell” is that portrayed in Dante’s Divine Comedy and Milton’s Paradise Lost, which meaning is completely foreign to the original definition of the word.
The idea of a “hell” of fiery torment, however, dates back long before Dante or Milton. The Grolier Universal Encyclopedia (1971, Vol. 9, p. 205) under “Hell” says: “Hindus and Buddhists regard hell as a place of spiritual cleansing and final restoration. Islamic tradition considers it as a place of everlasting punishment.” The idea of suffering after death is found among the pagan religious teachings of ancient peoples in Babylon and Egypt. Babylonian and Assyrian beliefs depicted the “nether world . . . as a place full of horrors, . . . presided over by gods and demons of great strength and fierceness.” Although ancient Egyptian religious texts do not teach that the burning of any individual victim would go on forever, they do portray the “Other World” as featuring “pits of fire” for “the damned.”—The Religion of Babylonia and Assyria, by Morris Jastrow, Jr., 1898, p. 581; The Book of the Dead, with introduction by E. Wallis Budge, 1960, pp. 135, 144, 149, 151, 153, 161, 200.
The following statements are false Ken
How does the Bible define hell?The Bible uses the word hell 54 times throughout the Old and New Testaments (KJV).
It would have been more accurate to say, The KJV
translation of the Bible defines hell... although that is neither Hebrew, Aramaic, nor Greek.
This is not a study of the Bible Ken. This is a study of a theologian.
Consider the next false premise...
Can the word hell simply mean the grave?
Shouldn't that be, Can the word Sheol/Hades simply mean the grave?
The answer is Yes.
Most translators of the Bible recognize that.
Even your definition acknowledges it.
I think it's important to start with the Bible rather than a belief. What do you think.
The words are
Hebrew Sheol;
Greek Hades.
I'll wait for your response to my earlier questions. Let's see where it takes us.