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Which text from the Christian Bible uniquely proves that Jesus is Almighty God?

jimb

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Yes, and thousands of people saw Him.
But John said: “No one has ever seen God.

Really?

Now you’re promoting heresy. This isn’t what the Trinity Doctrine teaches.
Oh, come on. Seriously?

John 14:9b-10, "Anyone who has seen me [Jesus] has seen the Father. Don't you believe that I am in the Father, and the Father is in me?"

Why waste our time? => Read your Bible <=
 

jimb

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
divine essence , primacy , Spirit does not have the primacy" as I said the one being sent would be subordinate
You are wrong. If I send my wife to the store, does that make her my subordinate?

Read my post immediately above.
 

jimb

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
The Trinity Doctrine says nothing about primacy.

In fact, it states that all three are ‘co-equal, co-powerful, and co-eternal.’

Your views would be considered heresy.

Are you aware that “essence” is a Greek philosophical term, and not found in the Bible?…

Highly respected scholar and Catholic priest John L. McKenzie, S.J., in his “Dictionary of the Bible”, says: “The trinity of persons within the unity of nature is defined in terms of ‘person’ and ‘nature’ which are Gk (Greek) philosophical terms; actually the terms do not appear in the Bible. The trinitarian definitions arose as the result of long controversies in which these terms and others such as ‘essence’ and ‘substance’ were erroneously applied to God by some theologians.”—(Italics and bold type are mine.) (New York, 1965), p. 899.

This guy was himself a Catholic priest (a trinitarian), but he was honest enough to note the ‘errors’
that were applied to some texts.
Excellent post! Thanks for showing the truth about the Trinity.
 

jimb

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
We must not confuse the doctrine of unity with the dogma of the trinity.

1) "I and the Father are one" proves the doctrine of unity, a doctrine present in Judaism, Christianity and Islam.

2) The father and I are one, it means everything from "union of purpose" to "one metaphysical essence", it depends on who will interpret it.

3) Jesus's statement "I am in the Father" conveys a profound theological meaning. In the context of Hebrew and Greek prepositions used in biblical texts, which often denote geographical relationships like "a mountain to the city," Jesus's words suggest a spiritual and intimate connection rather than a physical location. He is expressing that he shares a deep unity and influence with the Father, highlighting their inseparable relationship or missiological...
"The Father is in me and I am in the Father" John 10:39b

That ain't no "geographical relationship". That is JESUS CHRIST HIMSELF EXPLAINING THE COMPLETE UNITY OF HIMSELF AND THE FATHER. COMPLETE UNITY!

His not mentioning the Holy Spirit does not, in any way, imply that the Trinity doesn't exist.
 

cataway

Well-Known Member
You are wrong. If I send my wife to the store, does that make her my subordinate?

Read my post immediately above.

1 Corinthians 11:3

But I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; in turn, the head of a woman is the man; in turn, the head of the Christ is God.

Ephesians 5:23

because a husband is head of his wife just as the Christ is head of the congregation, he being a savior of this body.

technically the husband has the authority of governor over his wife. she may not like it yet its
god's way as to the family .
 
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jimb

Well-Known Member
Premium Member

1 Corinthians 11:3

But I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; in turn, the head of a woman is the man; in turn, the head of the Christ is God.

Ephesians 5:23

because a husband is head of his wife just as the Christ is head of the congregation, he being a savior of this body.

technically the husband has the authority of governor over his wife. she may not like it yet its
god's way as to the family .
Mark 10:7-9, "For this reason a man will leave his father and mother, and the two will become one flesh. So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.”

Genesis 2:22-23, "Then the man said, “This one at last is bone of my bones and flesh of my flesh; this one will be called ‘woman,’ for she was taken out of man.”

Ephesians 5:25, "Husbands, love your wives just as Christ loved the church and gave himself for her to sanctify her by cleansing her with the washing of the water by the word"

Ephesians 5:28b, "husbands ought to love their wives as their own bodies. He who loves his wife loves himself."

Your interpretation of Scripture is absurd and your "technically..." is just plain nonsense. Christ gave Himself for His body, and a man should likewise give himself for his wife.

"For even the Son of Man did not come to be served but to serve" Mark 10:45 and similarly "just as the Son of Man did not come to be served but to serve" Matthew 20:28.

Your male domination thesis is total nonsense and is contrary to what the Bible says about how a man should relate to a woman.

The model to follow is: Jesus Christ is the head of the church and He came to serve.

P.S. If you're married, did you show your wife your domination theory?
 

YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)
And..? What are you trying to say? "... our image" implies more than one.
Here's what I am saying-- God said Let us create man in our image. So how many do you think the Bible says God created in their image? One? Two? Three? Millions?
 

cataway

Well-Known Member
Mark 10:7-9, "For this reason a man will leave his father and mother, and the two will become one flesh. So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.”

Genesis 2:22-23, "Then the man said, “This one at last is bone of my bones and flesh of my flesh; this one will be called ‘woman,’ for she was taken out of man.”

Ephesians 5:25, "Husbands, love your wives just as Christ loved the church and gave himself for her to sanctify her by cleansing her with the washing of the water by the word"

Ephesians 5:28b, "husbands ought to love their wives as their own bodies. He who loves his wife loves himself."

Your interpretation of Scripture is absurd and your "technically..." is just plain nonsense. Christ gave Himself for His body, and a man should likewise give himself for his wife.

"For even the Son of Man did not come to be served but to serve" Mark 10:45 and similarly "just as the Son of Man did not come to be served but to serve" Matthew 20:28.

Your male domination thesis is total nonsense and is contrary to what the Bible says about how a man should relate to a woman.

The model to follow is: Jesus Christ is the head of the church and He came to serve.

P.S. If you're married, did you show your wife your domination theory?
you are the one implying she should be beaten into submission
 

jimb

Well-Known Member
Premium Member
Here's what I am saying-- God said Let us create man in our image. So how many do you think the Bible says God created in their image? One? Two? Three? Millions?
And in an earlier post you wrote that God created Adam (man) first and then Eve (woman). In other words, two persons. So you have answered your own question!
 

cataway

Well-Known Member

Romans 7:2

For instance, a married woman is bound by law to her husband while he is alive; but if her husband dies, she is released from the law of her husband.

Romans 7:3

So, then, while her husband is living, she would be called an adulteress if she became another man’s. But if her husband dies, she is free from his law, so that she is not an adulteress if she becomes another man’s.
 

YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)

1 Corinthians 11:3

But I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; in turn, the head of a woman is the man; in turn, the head of the Christ is God.

Ephesians 5:23

because a husband is head of his wife just as the Christ is head of the congregation, he being a savior of this body.

technically the husband has the authority of governor over his wife. she may not like it yet its
god's way as to the family .
Jesus was the perfect one to be in subjection to the Father.
 

YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)
If you can't write anything useful or at least of interest, why write at all?

And your ad hominem insult says a lot about who you are.
You certainly are full of insulting retorts to people.
 

YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)
And in an earlier post you wrote that God created Adam (man) first and then Eve (woman). In other words, two persons. So you have answered your own question!
First -- God created man. From the dust or soil. Then He created woman from the man. That's two, anyway. Not three. And-- of course -- the woman was to be in subjection to her husband, from which she came.
 

YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)

Romans 7:2

For instance, a married woman is bound by law to her husband while he is alive; but if her husband dies, she is released from the law of her husband.

Romans 7:3

So, then, while her husband is living, she would be called an adulteress if she became another man’s. But if her husband dies, she is free from his law, so that she is not an adulteress if she becomes another man’s.
Very interesting, thank you for that.
 

QuestioningMind

Well-Known Member
1) The majority of texts support the doctrine of unity.

2) The interpretation of John 14:16, 20, 30 is partially as taught by Basil the Great and Saint Augustine, namely, if the relationship is permanent, it proves the doctrine of the Trinity; if it is functional missiological, it proves only the doctrine of unity.

3) The Catholic churches explicitly declare that the doctrine of the Trinity is a dogma developed philosophically in Trinitarian formulas like 2 Corinthians 13:13 {Catechism of the Catholic Church drafted after the Second Vatican Council & 249.}

4) The verses, almost all very ambiguous, that lead one to think that Jesus is "theos" (John 20:28; Rom 9:5; Phil 2:6) may only be saying that Jesus is a christological Elohim akin to (Exodus 21:6; 1 Samuel 2:25), since the Greek term "theos" God/god is interchangeable with the Hebrew term elohim in the Hebrew Bible and Septuagint.
There aren't any. The text of the bible is full of CLAIMS... claims are not proof. That's like asking what text in the Harry Potter novels proves that Harry is a wizard. NONE of the text proves such a thing... it simply claims that such a thing is true on numerous occasions.
 

YoursTrue

Faith-confidence in what we hope for (Hebrews 11)
And in an earlier post you wrote that God created Adam (man) first and then Eve (woman). In other words, two persons. So you have answered your own question!
Let's see -- Since God created man in God's image, first God created Adam...then Eve came from Adam's body. How is that in the image of a threesome, please?
 

jimb

Well-Known Member
Premium Member

Romans 7:2

For instance, a married woman is bound by law to her husband while he is alive; but if her husband dies, she is released from the law of her husband.

Romans 7:3

So, then, while her husband is living, she would be called an adulteress if she became another man’s. But if her husband dies, she is free from his law, so that she is not an adulteress if she becomes another man’s.
a) This is irrelevant to the discussion
b) Your signature says "this member [you] often uses sarcasm as a regular form of communication. Is this an example?
 
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