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Who caused Satan or the devil rebel

Thief

Rogue Theologian
and the book then points out....
'Tell the people ...I AM!....and they who understand will know Whose law this is....'

so it was dealt to Moses.

and the Carpenter taught in parable....to confound those who have not ears that hear.

You gotta want it.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
No to languages are the same. In fact it is easy to show where many different terms have been adopted by the church when they hit certain areas. The KJV for example is one such case.

Agree, because Not all languages descended or branched off from a parent language.
Etymology - history of a word - and philology - the comparative study of languages - is in distinct ' families ' thus showing a ' parent language ' of each major ' family ' usually is Not identified, much less pointing to evidence of any one parent language as being a source of all the tongues or languages spoken today. All languages however are capable of expressing the full range of human thought which allows for accurate Bible translation. In other words, each language can be compared with the ancient Hebrew and Greek biblical manuscripts.

Language evolves. If we were to ask Moses if he would like a slice of pizza, how could he reply.
So, although KJV has some archaic words or terms (-> Philemon verse 8; Genesis 25:29; Leviticus 26:16; Isaiah 14:23; 58:8 B ) that does Not mean the Hebrew and Greek wording can't be checked so as now to have an accurate modern word.

Think about how different the Navaho language is, and although they know English, how much more readily they understand the Bible now that it is available in their mother tongue or their native language of the Navaho native Americans.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
and the book then points out....
'Tell the people ...I AM!....and they who understand will know Whose law this is....'
so it was dealt to Moses.
and the Carpenter taught in parable....to confound those who have not ears that hear.
You gotta want it.

Why did you use the upper-case letters ' I AM ' when in Scripture it is ' I am ' ?

Also, I AM nor I am is the Tetragrammaton (YHWH)
 

Monk Of Reason

༼ つ ◕_◕ ༽つ
Agree, because Not all languages descended or branched off from a parent language.
Etymology - history of a word - and philology - the comparative study of languages - is in distinct ' families ' thus showing a ' parent language ' of each major ' family ' usually is Not identified, much less pointing to evidence of any one parent language as being a source of all the tongues or languages spoken today. All languages however are capable of expressing the full range of human thought which allows for accurate Bible translation. In other words, each language can be compared with the ancient Hebrew and Greek biblical manuscripts.

Language evolves. If we were to ask Moses if he would like a slice of pizza, how could he reply.
So, although KJV has some archaic words or terms (-> Philemon verse 8; Genesis 25:29; Leviticus 26:16; Isaiah 14:23; 58:8 B ) that does Not mean the Hebrew and Greek wording can't be checked so as now to have an accurate modern word.

Think about how different the Navaho language is, and although they know English, how much more readily they understand the Bible now that it is available in their mother tongue or their native language of the Navaho native Americans.
In the case specifically with the term "witch" rather than "liar" or "poisoner" the term was very politically motivated as it demonized the pagan magical practices. This is what I am getting at. The word witch had absolutly no real interpretation from the passage and yet it was used in the English translation.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
So how do you pick what is literal and what is metaphorical ?.

I'd like to take the liberty to add to Monk of Reason's comment regarding guidance from God's holy spirit. With the help of God's spirit ( Luke 13:11 B ) often just reading the context and setting helps one comprehend what is literal and what is metaphorical.
For example:
Matthew 5:29,30 is Not literal but metaphorically speaking because Jesus, Nor the Constitution of the Mosaic Law, advocated self mutilation. Rather one should be willing to ' cut out of one's life style ' what is spiritually harmful.

Also, all of Jesus' parables are illustrations. They are Not literal happenings.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
In the case specifically with the term "witch" rather than "liar" or "poisoner" the term was very politically motivated as it demonized the pagan magical practices. This is what I am getting at. The word witch had absolutely no real interpretation from the passage and yet it was used in the English translation.

Good point ^above ^, but because the English can be compared with the ancient Hebrew and the Greek manuscripts then it can be discerned where a translator took the liberty to slant something. Again, that does Not make Scripture as wrong but the copyist as wrong.

Please keep this in mind: that there is a BIG difference between recognizing minor mistakes that ' crept into copies ' of the Bible text and dismissing the whole Bible as being fabricated.
 

Monk Of Reason

༼ つ ◕_◕ ༽つ
Good point ^above ^, but because the English can be compared with the ancient Hebrew and the Greek manuscripts then it can be discerned where a translator took the liberty to slant something. Again, that does Not make Scripture as wrong but the copyist as wrong.

Please keep this in mind: that there is a BIG difference between recognizing minor mistakes that ' crept into copies ' of the Bible text and dismissing the whole Bible as being fabricated.
I didn't say that the whole of the bible was fabricated intentionally. I think the majority of the bible is mythological or legendary but that wasn't what I was getting at. I was saying that the bible isn't perfect and it is often toted as being totally perfect. Even if there are small inconsistencies then it shows that it is not in the realm of perfection.
 

psychoslice

Veteran Member
The holy spirit guides them. IT is only revealed to true believers. But who gets the correct revelation is the better question.
Then you have to prove there is a holy spirit, I myself thinks its just their own cherry picking. Yes and who's revelation, everyone say's that they were lead by the holy spirit, yet they all differ in their revelation, sounds a bit odd doesn't it ?.
 

Thief

Rogue Theologian
Why did you use the upper-case letters ' I AM ' when in Scripture it is ' I am ' ?

Also, I AM nor I am is the Tetragrammaton (YHWH)

You might choose any Name you care to use on God.
and then use it to His Face when you get there.

correcting my typing is not a trump card....I was simply pumping up the exclamation.
which is quite difficult in print.
as it represents creation and Creator in one pronouncement.

You did not actually address the post.
 

Thief

Rogue Theologian
Then you have to prove there is a holy spirit, I myself thinks its just their own cherry picking. Yes and who's revelation, everyone say's that they were lead by the holy spirit, yet they all differ in their revelation, sounds a bit odd doesn't it ?.

As your linear existence is unique.....you will be as well.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
In the case specifically with the term "witch" rather than "liar" or "poisoner" the term was very politically motivated as it demonized the pagan magical practices. This is what I am getting at. The word witch had absolutely no real interpretation from the passage and yet it was used in the English translation.

Well, Monk of Reason, I see what you mean by used in the English translation.
However, might it be better to say ' used in 'a' or 'some' English ' translations ?
Which verse do you have in mind?
As for politically motivated, no doubt that can be quite an accurate statement.
Think of ' Christendom ' (so-called Christianity ) today with her clergy classes.
They are often politically motivated even to the point of using the pulpit as a recruiting station so that parents will sacrifice their young on the Altar of War.
During the world wars clergy of both sides ' blessed ' their own military.
As in Jesus' day, clergy today often make of pretense of honoring God all the while promoting their own selfish agenda. - see Matthew 23:2 - that ' seat of Moses ' was that they acted as if they were the Doctor's of the Law. Yet their rules or regulations, their man-made traditions or customs were denounced by Jesus. - Matthew 15:9 and Matthew chapter 23.
They often use their own opinion and shove it into Jesus' mouth as if they are some sort of holy ventriloquists while promoting their agenda, often political, as if it was Jesus' agenda.
None of which makes Scripture as wrong but that translator as wrong.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
I didn't say that the whole of the bible was fabricated intentionally. I think the majority of the bible is mythological or legendary but that wasn't what I was getting at. I was saying that the bible isn't perfect and it is often toted as being totally perfect. Even if there are small inconsistencies then it shows that it is not in the realm of perfection.

Perfection in Scripture can mean being: Complete. Such as: an imperfect wedding ring might not be perfect, but it is perfect for a wedding ceremony.

Is it really inconsistencies or just a matter of researching Scripture by subject matter, or by topic arrangement ? Since the Bible is Not written ABC as a dictionary, then we search or study the Scriptures by parallel cross-reference verses and passages, thus creating a complete picture of what the Bible really teaches. A comprehensive concordance lists the Bible's words in alphabetical order to serve as a quick locator of particular subjects or topics.

As 2nd Timothy 3:16,17 says -> ' ALL Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial for teaching, for reproving, for setting things straight, for disciplining in righteousness, so that the man of God may be fully competent, completely equipped for every good work.'
So, the Bible is complete or perfect as a teaching textbook on how to serve God and gain everlasting life either in heaven for some, or for the majority of mankind to live forever on earth as promised at Psalm 37:11,29.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
You might choose any Name you care to use on God. and then use it to His Face when you get there.
correcting my typing is not a trump card....I was simply pumping up the exclamation.
which is quite difficult in print.
as it represents creation and Creator in one pronouncement.
You did not actually address the post.

According to Scripture everyone who died before Jesus' died do Not ever go to heaven.
- John 3:13 - Even King David - Acts 2:34 - and the faithful of old listed in Hebrews chapter 11 will never go to heaven, but they await the fulfillment of the promise - Hebrews 11 vs 13,39.
That promise is the promise God made to Abraham - Genesis 12:3; 22:18 - that all nations of earth will be blessed. They will be blessed with the healing or curing of earth's nations as mentioned at Revelation 22:2 when mankind on earth will see the return of the Genesis ' tree of life ' for righteous mankind.

As Jesus promised when referring to Psalm 37:11,29 that the humble meek will inherit [ Not heaven ] but will inherit the earth. That inheritance will take place during Jesus' coming 1000-year kingdom reign over earth when Jesus will usher in global Peace on Earth among men of goodwill, and the sleeping dead will be awakened from death deep long sleep with the opportunity to live forever on a beautiful paradisaic earth.
 

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
Then you have to prove there is a holy spirit, I myself thinks its just their own cherry picking. Yes and who's revelation, everyone say's that they were lead by the holy spirit, yet they all differ in their revelation, sounds a bit odd doesn't it ?.

On the surface it does seem odd except for the warning Jesus gave us at Matthew chapter 7 that MANY would come ' In His Name ' but prove false.

Clergy today, like the religious leaders of Jesus' day - Mark 7:1-7,13; Matthew 15:9 - often teaching church traditions or customs as if they are Scripture misleading the flock of God.
- Acts 20:29,30; 2nd Thess. 2:2-8

One way how Not to differ is by the Bible's own corresponding reference verses or passages thus showing the internal harmony of thought between its many writers.
 

Monk Of Reason

༼ つ ◕_◕ ༽つ
Well, Monk of Reason, I see what you mean by used in the English translation.
However, might it be better to say ' used in 'a' or 'some' English ' translations ?
Which verse do you have in mind?
As for politically motivated, no doubt that can be quite an accurate statement.
Think of ' Christendom ' (so-called Christianity ) today with her clergy classes.
They are often politically motivated even to the point of using the pulpit as a recruiting station so that parents will sacrifice their young on the Altar of War.
During the world wars clergy of both sides ' blessed ' their own military.
As in Jesus' day, clergy today often make of pretense of honoring God all the while promoting their own selfish agenda. - see Matthew 23:2 - that ' seat of Moses ' was that they acted as if they were the Doctor's of the Law. Yet their rules or regulations, their man-made traditions or customs were denounced by Jesus. - Matthew 15:9 and Matthew chapter 23.
They often use their own opinion and shove it into Jesus' mouth as if they are some sort of holy ventriloquists while promoting their agenda, often political, as if it was Jesus' agenda.
None of which makes Scripture as wrong but that translator as wrong.
Perfection in Scripture can mean being: Complete. Such as: an imperfect wedding ring might not be perfect, but it is perfect for a wedding ceremony.

Is it really inconsistencies or just a matter of researching Scripture by subject matter, or by topic arrangement ? Since the Bible is Not written ABC as a dictionary, then we search or study the Scriptures by parallel cross-reference verses and passages, thus creating a complete picture of what the Bible really teaches. A comprehensive concordance lists the Bible's words in alphabetical order to serve as a quick locator of particular subjects or topics.

As 2nd Timothy 3:16,17 says -> ' ALL Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial for teaching, for reproving, for setting things straight, for disciplining in righteousness, so that the man of God may be fully competent, completely equipped for every good work.'
So, the Bible is complete or perfect as a teaching textbook on how to serve God and gain everlasting life either in heaven for some, or for the majority of mankind to live forever on earth as promised at Psalm 37:11,29.

If you alright with the history of the Church and the history of Biblical translations and hold fast to your faith all the same then more power to you. But it seems to me that the different portions of the bible have several different contradicting messages as well as inconsistencies in the translations.
 
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