Thief
Rogue Theologian
Well, if there is such thing as the god of the old testament, wouldn't anyone rebel, heck I would.
Two thirds of heaven did not.
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Well, if there is such thing as the god of the old testament, wouldn't anyone rebel, heck I would.
You are a literalist aren't you ?.Two thirds of heaven did not.
You are a literalist aren't you ?.
So how do you pick what is literal and what is metaphorical ?.Not all together.
Lots of metaphor and indirect in that book.
The holy spirit guides them. IT is only revealed to true believers. But who gets the correct revelation is the better question.So how do you pick what is literal and what is metaphorical ?.
No to languages are the same. In fact it is easy to show where many different terms have been adopted by the church when they hit certain areas. The KJV for example is one such case.
and the book then points out....
'Tell the people ...I AM!....and they who understand will know Whose law this is....'
so it was dealt to Moses.
and the Carpenter taught in parable....to confound those who have not ears that hear.
You gotta want it.
In the case specifically with the term "witch" rather than "liar" or "poisoner" the term was very politically motivated as it demonized the pagan magical practices. This is what I am getting at. The word witch had absolutly no real interpretation from the passage and yet it was used in the English translation.Agree, because Not all languages descended or branched off from a parent language.
Etymology - history of a word - and philology - the comparative study of languages - is in distinct ' families ' thus showing a ' parent language ' of each major ' family ' usually is Not identified, much less pointing to evidence of any one parent language as being a source of all the tongues or languages spoken today. All languages however are capable of expressing the full range of human thought which allows for accurate Bible translation. In other words, each language can be compared with the ancient Hebrew and Greek biblical manuscripts.
Language evolves. If we were to ask Moses if he would like a slice of pizza, how could he reply.
So, although KJV has some archaic words or terms (-> Philemon verse 8; Genesis 25:29; Leviticus 26:16; Isaiah 14:23; 58:8 B ) that does Not mean the Hebrew and Greek wording can't be checked so as now to have an accurate modern word.
Think about how different the Navaho language is, and although they know English, how much more readily they understand the Bible now that it is available in their mother tongue or their native language of the Navaho native Americans.
So how do you pick what is literal and what is metaphorical ?.
In the case specifically with the term "witch" rather than "liar" or "poisoner" the term was very politically motivated as it demonized the pagan magical practices. This is what I am getting at. The word witch had absolutely no real interpretation from the passage and yet it was used in the English translation.
I didn't say that the whole of the bible was fabricated intentionally. I think the majority of the bible is mythological or legendary but that wasn't what I was getting at. I was saying that the bible isn't perfect and it is often toted as being totally perfect. Even if there are small inconsistencies then it shows that it is not in the realm of perfection.Good point ^above ^, but because the English can be compared with the ancient Hebrew and the Greek manuscripts then it can be discerned where a translator took the liberty to slant something. Again, that does Not make Scripture as wrong but the copyist as wrong.
Please keep this in mind: that there is a BIG difference between recognizing minor mistakes that ' crept into copies ' of the Bible text and dismissing the whole Bible as being fabricated.
Then you have to prove there is a holy spirit, I myself thinks its just their own cherry picking. Yes and who's revelation, everyone say's that they were lead by the holy spirit, yet they all differ in their revelation, sounds a bit odd doesn't it ?.The holy spirit guides them. IT is only revealed to true believers. But who gets the correct revelation is the better question.
Why did you use the upper-case letters ' I AM ' when in Scripture it is ' I am ' ?
Also, I AM nor I am is the Tetragrammaton (YHWH)
Then you have to prove there is a holy spirit, I myself thinks its just their own cherry picking. Yes and who's revelation, everyone say's that they were lead by the holy spirit, yet they all differ in their revelation, sounds a bit odd doesn't it ?.
In the case specifically with the term "witch" rather than "liar" or "poisoner" the term was very politically motivated as it demonized the pagan magical practices. This is what I am getting at. The word witch had absolutely no real interpretation from the passage and yet it was used in the English translation.
I didn't say that the whole of the bible was fabricated intentionally. I think the majority of the bible is mythological or legendary but that wasn't what I was getting at. I was saying that the bible isn't perfect and it is often toted as being totally perfect. Even if there are small inconsistencies then it shows that it is not in the realm of perfection.
You might choose any Name you care to use on God. and then use it to His Face when you get there.
correcting my typing is not a trump card....I was simply pumping up the exclamation.
which is quite difficult in print.
as it represents creation and Creator in one pronouncement.
You did not actually address the post.
Then you have to prove there is a holy spirit, I myself thinks its just their own cherry picking. Yes and who's revelation, everyone say's that they were lead by the holy spirit, yet they all differ in their revelation, sounds a bit odd doesn't it ?.
Well, Monk of Reason, I see what you mean by used in the English translation.
However, might it be better to say ' used in 'a' or 'some' English ' translations ?
Which verse do you have in mind?
As for politically motivated, no doubt that can be quite an accurate statement.
Think of ' Christendom ' (so-called Christianity ) today with her clergy classes.
They are often politically motivated even to the point of using the pulpit as a recruiting station so that parents will sacrifice their young on the Altar of War.
During the world wars clergy of both sides ' blessed ' their own military.
As in Jesus' day, clergy today often make of pretense of honoring God all the while promoting their own selfish agenda. - see Matthew 23:2 - that ' seat of Moses ' was that they acted as if they were the Doctor's of the Law. Yet their rules or regulations, their man-made traditions or customs were denounced by Jesus. - Matthew 15:9 and Matthew chapter 23.
They often use their own opinion and shove it into Jesus' mouth as if they are some sort of holy ventriloquists while promoting their agenda, often political, as if it was Jesus' agenda.
None of which makes Scripture as wrong but that translator as wrong.
Perfection in Scripture can mean being: Complete. Such as: an imperfect wedding ring might not be perfect, but it is perfect for a wedding ceremony.
Is it really inconsistencies or just a matter of researching Scripture by subject matter, or by topic arrangement ? Since the Bible is Not written ABC as a dictionary, then we search or study the Scriptures by parallel cross-reference verses and passages, thus creating a complete picture of what the Bible really teaches. A comprehensive concordance lists the Bible's words in alphabetical order to serve as a quick locator of particular subjects or topics.
As 2nd Timothy 3:16,17 says -> ' ALL Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial for teaching, for reproving, for setting things straight, for disciplining in righteousness, so that the man of God may be fully competent, completely equipped for every good work.'
So, the Bible is complete or perfect as a teaching textbook on how to serve God and gain everlasting life either in heaven for some, or for the majority of mankind to live forever on earth as promised at Psalm 37:11,29.