Believe it or not, there's a ridiculously simple answer to these questions if we simply accept the legitimacy of the existence of all the parts and then put them back together in a logical, scientific, theological, sequence.
The answer to the question of who the first Jewish woman is, how her seed is Jewish, and why the male convert can't affect Jewish offspring, is as simple as it is scientifically and theologically correct. The woman and her seed are the default human archetype. Every woman, all ova, are Jewish, every single one of them. There are no Gentile maidens (virgins). A woman only becomes a Gentile if she cohabitates with a non-Jewish male and mother's his offspring. She is a Jew, and all her ova are Jewish, until she, and her ova (the so-called "seed of the woman"), are contaminated with the seed of the male. The seed of the male transforms the Jewish woman, all women, to a Gentile, as it transforms the Jewish ova in her womb to Gentile.
The ancillary reality of this truism is that while every woman is Jewish until she cohabitates with a male (all female virgins are Jewish), all males, virgin or otherwise, are born already contaminated with the toxic-masculinity represented by the concept of the "Gentile," which "Gentile," is best represented by the masculine genitalia. Therefore, for a male to convert so he can become a Jew, he must cut and bleed the emblem of his toxic-masculinity, the Gentile organ, the male genitalia, which is the undeniable deliverer of toxic-masculinity (resulting in the
yetzer hara and or the original sin nature). The serpentine flesh is the conduit through which all Gentile existence flows. And this is so much the case that even after a "ritual" ("ritual" being juxtaposed against "real") conversion of the male to Jewishness, he still can't affect Jewish offspring. That's left wholly to the "seed of the woman" which in all cases is Jewish.
But if all women are Jewish until they cohabitate with a man, and if all men are Gentile by default and no fault of their own, then how can Jewish offspring ever be born since men can't father Jews even if they've symbolically ("ritually" not "really") eliminated (
brit milah) the Gentile organ that is their serpentine genitalia? Every time a Jewish maiden (all female virgins) cohabitates with a male her ova will be contaminated with the seed of the male since even if she cohabitates with a Jewish male, he has only "ritually" marked his serpentine flesh for extermination. He hasn't actually cut all the way through to the bone of the truth of what the ritual means.
Who, therefore, can save humanity from the fact that what Judaism delivers in its amazing and gracious brilliance, is left dangling as emblems, religious rituals, and signs, none of which "really" affects the fact that the "seed of the man" is in all cases toxic, while the "seed of the woman" is in all cases Jewish, such that the only salvation from death, disease, want, and all that comes with it, is in the "seed of the woman," the Jewish seed, before it's contaminated with the toxic-masculinity that comes from all masculine seed be the deliverer Jew or Gentile?
What if the "seed of the woman" could develop before the husband, Jewish or otherwise, contaminated it? And what if, though it seems impossible, this "seed of the woman" that develops without being contaminated with toxic-masculinity was a male (parthenogenesis generally produces females)? Would this be the first "real" versus "ritual" Jewish male in the history of humanity? Would he be the "reality" signified by the "ritual" removal of the serpentine flesh (
brit milah)? Would this be the "seed of the woman" found in Genesis 3:15 and labeled the savior of humanity? And if not, why not?
John
