Jesus was a Jew, raised in Judaism. If nothing is mentioned, it is safe to assume he simply went by the practice of Judaism. That would include circumcision.
In Acts and the epistles, we see that Jewish believers practiced circumcision, while Gentile believers did not. This is also the correct practice according to Judaism.
Interesting generalization, however the Abraamic Covenant, talked about in the New Testament, doesn't associate the practice of circumcision with Abraam, however it goes further, in that the 'Covenant of Uncircumcision', is directly linked to Jesus, via Abraam
Abraam 》Jesus, same Covenant.
This also, is sort of 'obvious', if one presumes the Abraamic Covenant to include more than 'jews', [religion specificity, here.
So, there isn't an inference to the practice of circumcision, directly where we might presume there not to be, and, this would explain the 'two versions', one mentioned by Stephen, a verse type quote, or specific teaching, and one, more in line with the 'added laws' configuration, talked about elsewhere.
The difference there, the jews who are trying to introduce circumcision, to the christian church, at the time, are directly opposed on the grounds that that contradicts the Abraamic Covenant, not because they are trying to introduce the practice to 'gentiles'.