That isn't an inference that the religion, Jesus religion , either believed that anyone should practice circumcision, or where the practice was from.
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According to the explained Covenantal Theology of the New Testament, the practice of circumcision isn't Abraamic, it's Mosaic, (with other priests.
So,
Galatians 2:3-5
Galatians 2:21
[The law cannot bring righteousness
Galatians 3:6-7
[Abraam equated with faith, not law
Galatians 3:8
[The nations, context
Galatians 3:9
[Faith equated with Abraam
Galatians 3:10
[The law is a curse
Galatians 3:14
[Abraam》》Jesus Christ, (same Covenant
Galatians 3:17
[The law was given after the Covenant with Abraam
(Contextually, the practice of circumcision, being used as a 'basic example', of an added law, added after the Covenant with Abraam.
Galatians 3:19
[The law was "added" because of transgressions
Galatians 3:22
Galatians 3:28
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The New Testament is clearly associating the practice of circumcision, with the Mosaic laws, (this means priests also, not just Moses, and clearly isn't associating the practice of circumcision, with the Abraamic Covenant.
In fact, the New Testament is differentiating the Abraamic Covenant, from the Mosaic laws [added laws, called a curse, by using the example of the practice of circumcision, (it's an obvious difference, though obviously other added laws aren't associated with the Abraamic Covenant , either.