....and the cause or reason for scriptural divorce is: ' fornication ' according to Matthew 19:9 and 5:32
The reason Jesus used the word fornication instead of adultery is because fornication (porneia ) is more comprehensive in meaning than adultery. Fornication covers anything inside or outside of scriptural marriage between: man cleaving to wife.
Fornicators will Not inherit God's kingdom - 1st Corinthians 6:9
As already stated, and shown - Mat 19:9 and Mat 5:32 - are about men putting aside the women they own, - only!
Mat 5:32 But I say unto you, That
whosoever shall put away his woman, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
Mat 19:3 The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him,
Is it lawful for a man to put away his woman for every cause?
Mat 19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away
his woman, except
it befor fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth
her which is put away doth commit adultery.
Mat 19:11 But he said unto them,
All men cannot receive this saying, save
they to whom it is given.
1 CO 6:9 Know you not that the “heathen” shall not inherit the Kingdom of God? Be not deceived: Neither prostitutes (pornos,) nor idolaters, nor (moichos) adulterers, nor the morally weak,
nor arsenokoites (rapists, etc)
"Moichos" actually means a male paramour = the illicit partner of a married person..
There are no ancient Greek texts using arsenokoites or its stem as homosexuality. There are uses for both male and female as RAPE.
The Thesaurus Linguae Graecae. TLG has collected and digitized most literary texts written in Greek, from the 8th century BC to the fall of Byzantium in AD 1453. They have 73 references to the arsenokoit stem. There are NO early Greek uses of the word as “homosexual.” LATER - the church decides to translate it as such – then these later texts copy the church original.
SO - try again!!!!
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