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Why Quran was revealed After Bible?

InvestigateTruth

Veteran Member
The answer that I ususally heard from the Molems, is that, mainly because Bible is corrupted.

A Christian or someone else may ask:

if indeed that is the case and after Jesus left, His Book was also corrupted, then what did those people have to be guided with from the time of Jesus to Muhammad? How could God, who is caring and loving, left them for 600 years without proper guidance? Why God didn't send them a prophet earlier to tell them the Truth and give them the Book for their guidance? Why waiting for 600 years and then sending Muhammad?


What answer Islam have for these questions?
 
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seeking4truth

Active Member
Why was the 'Bible' revealed after the Torah?
The fact is that Almighty God has always revealed Himself to His creation. All cultures have a concept of a deity. At times He has taught us things which will help us to develop spiritually as well as in other ways. As humans developed and human society became more complex and mobile more guidance was given.
Another reason for new guidance is that the older revealed teachings became misunderstood, misinterpreted, misused or just lost so it was harder to benefit from them.
Jesus came to remove the misconception that had accrued to the Torah - 'not one jot or one tittle'.
Revelation to Muhammad re-established what was valuable of the earlier religions and introduced some new guidelines for the new generations. Mirza Ghulam Ahmad came to do for the Quran what Jesus did for the Torah - remove misconceptions and 'corruptions'. This is why he is called the Messiah; his role was the same as that of the first Messiah.
 

InvestigateTruth

Veteran Member
Why was the 'Bible' revealed after the Torah?
The fact is that Almighty God has always revealed Himself to His creation. All cultures have a concept of a deity. At times He has taught us things which will help us to develop spiritually as well as in other ways. As humans developed and human society became more complex and mobile more guidance was given.
Another reason for new guidance is that the older revealed teachings became misunderstood, misinterpreted, misused or just lost so it was harder to benefit from them.
Jesus came to remove the misconception that had accrued to the Torah - 'not one jot or one tittle'.
Revelation to Muhammad re-established what was valuable of the earlier religions and introduced some new guidelines for the new generations. Mirza Ghulam Ahmad came to do for the Quran what Jesus did for the Torah - remove misconceptions and 'corruptions'. This is why he is called the Messiah; his role was the same as that of the first Messiah.
Ok, thanks for your reply, Although I am more interested in the following questions:

A Christian or someone else may ask:

if indeed that is the case and after Jesus left, His Book (Text of Injil) was also corrupted, then what did those people have to be guided with from the time of Jesus to Muhammad? How could God, who is caring and loving, left them for 600 years without proper guidance? Why God didn't send them a prophet earlier to tell them the Truth and give them the Book for their guidance? Why waiting for 600 years and then sending Muhammad?


What answer Islam have for these questions?
 

Dingbat

Avatar of Brittania
Ok, thanks for your reply, Although I am more interested in the following questions:

A Christian or someone else may ask:

if indeed that is the case and after Jesus left, His Book (Text of Injil) was also corrupted, then what did those people have to be guided with from the time of Jesus to Muhammad? How could God, who is caring and loving, left them for 600 years without proper guidance? Why God didn't send them a prophet earlier to tell them the Truth and give them the Book for their guidance? Why waiting for 600 years and then sending Muhammad?


What answer Islam have for these questions?
To be fair if the teachings of Judaism were corrupted why did it take so long to send Jesus? That is a far bigger distance than Jesus-Mohammed.
 

InvestigateTruth

Veteran Member
To be fair if the teachings of Judaism were corrupted why did it take so long to send Jesus? That is a far bigger distance than Jesus-Mohammed.

Yes, that is a good question.
Well, the Baha'is do not believe that the Bible was corrupted. They believe, that the spiritual teachings were gradually faded, and at that time, then God sent His Messenger to renew.
It is like the Cycle of Spring to Winter. In Spring the life comes, and continues until when the the greens and trees die again. Then in next Spring they are resurrected again.
 

InvestigateTruth

Veteran Member
Thats it? Why 600 years? Seriously?

Yes, the reason this question is important, is that, God in Quran,and according to Moslem belief is an All-powerfull being who is aware of everything. Any time there was a need for guidance, God, according to Quran, sends His Messenger to guide people. So, in my opinion, when Moslems claim Bible was corrupted but God took Jesus to sky, and left people with a corrupted Book for 600 years, is a major theological issue with Islamic belief.
 
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seeking4truth

Active Member
"So, in my opinion, when Moslems claim Bible was corrupted but God took Jesus to sky, and left people with a corrupted Book for 600 years, is a major theological issue with Islamic belief."

After each revelation a period of growth takes place when progress is made and success comes to the communities established by those who follow the revelation. It does not happen in an instant - progress not magic.
During this period the community become educated and has the example of the prophet and his companions to guide them. From small beginnings this leads to a period of immense progress and success as people practice what God revealed.. Then come generations who do not have direct contact with the prophet or those who were taught directly by him; the communities spread to areas who do not have the same cultural concepts and changes slowly begin to creep into the practice of the religion. After this decline begins to set in.
This whole process is described as dawn, noon and sunset in religious scriptures.

This may take 300 years before the true knowledge is lost. Then we have years to reflect and examine the truth, to observe the success of those who followed the instructions and to see the decline of those who neglected them.
God is slow to punish and quick to forgive so He gives us plenty of time before the Day of Judgement comes(which may be interpreted in different ways one of which maybe the days of new revelations.)
 

Terrywoodenpic

Oldest Heretic
The" Bible" was not "revealed" nor had Jesus any thing to do with the writing of it.
It is an edited Library of selected Christian writings, letters and scriptures.

The Jewish writings that the Old testament is based on was also a "Collection" based on writings over a wide time period.

Both Jewish and Christian writings were based on an Oral tradition before they were committed to script. Both still require an oral tradition and knowledge of interpretation to convey meaning.
 

Vultar

Active Member
Yes, the reason this question is important, is that, God in Quran,and according to Moslem belief is an All-powerfull being who is aware of everything. Any time there was a need for guidance, God, according to Quran, sends His Messenger to guide people. So, in my opinion, when Moslems claim Bible was corrupted but God took Jesus to sky, and left people with a corrupted Book for 600 years, is a major theological issue with Islamic belief.

To follow the OP (not my belief), maybe god sent 600 prophets (1 a year) to try to get the message across but they all failed. Nobody every hears about a failed prophet...

As there are different sects of muslims who believe slightly different things, I would also think that Mohammed was not entirely successful at getting his message across either.
 

Lady B

noob
The answer that I ususally heard from the Molems, is that, mainly because Bible is corrupted.

A Christian or someone else may ask:

if indeed that is the case and after Jesus left, His Book was also corrupted, then what did those people have to be guided with from the time of Jesus to Muhammad? How could God, who is caring and loving, left them for 600 years without proper guidance? Why God didn't send them a prophet earlier to tell them the Truth and give them the Book for their guidance? Why waiting for 600 years and then sending Muhammad?


What answer Islam have for these questions?

Christians don't ask this question.:p
 

oldbadger

Skanky Old Mongrel!
The answer that I ususally heard from the Molems, is that, mainly because Bible is corrupted.

A Christian or someone else may ask:

if indeed that is the case and after Jesus left, His Book was also corrupted, then what did those people have to be guided with from the time of Jesus to Muhammad? How could God, who is caring and loving, left them for 600 years without proper guidance? Why God didn't send them a prophet earlier to tell them the Truth and give them the Book for their guidance? Why waiting for 600 years and then sending Muhammad?


What answer Islam have for these questions?

This doesn't make sense. After Jesus left his book didn't exist. It started to be written (as Gospels, letters and Revelations) from circa 34ad to circa 100ad, and as late as about 300 years after Jesus left it was all compiled into the New Testament. How can a compilation be corrupted before it is completed? I do admit that there was an awful lot of corruption, murder and destruction involved in that compilation, but I'm not sure that this is what you are refering to.

Are you leading this towards some failure of the Koran, and then, bingo!........ all the writings of the Bahai prophets to fill the gap? Where do you want to take this?
 

MeeM

Member
Salam All,

Interesting Question,

It was in my mind too, that why there was a Gap of 600 years between Bible (Injeel) and Quran.

Dont Know why ???
================================================
I Saw a movie long time ago, in that movie Jim Carrey was given godship for some time as the original god was leaving for vocations :), so when the god was giving charge to him he asked that if god also go on vocations, god replied, haven't you heard of the dark ages :D
================================================

In Islam we know only Four Holy Books

1. Torait (Torah) revealed to Hazrat Mosa (Moses) (A.S)
2. Zaboor revealed to Hazrat Dawood (David) (A.S)
3. Injeel (Bible) revealed to Hazrat Essa (Jesus) (A.S)
4. Quran revaled to Hazrat Muhammad (PBUH)

So, I also dont know that how much GAP was there between Torait and Zaboor, Zaboor and Injeel

There might be some pattern, or some arithmetic series.
OR
we can say Allah (GOD) knows better when to reveal a Book, when to send messenger, prophets.

But it is not part of my belief that a prophet comes after the gap of each 1000 years.

No offence to anyone, I have my belief and others have theirs.

Regards,
MeeM AliF SuaD
 

Lady B

noob
Salam All,

Interesting Question,

It was in my mind too, that why there was a Gap of 600 years between Bible (Injeel) and Quran.

Dont Know why ???
================================================
I Saw a movie long time ago, in that movie Jim Carrey was given godship for some time as the original god was leaving for vocations :), so when the god was giving charge to him he asked that if god also go on vocations, god replied, haven't you heard of the dark ages :D
================================================

In Islam we know only Four Holy Books

1. Torait (Torah) revealed to Hazrat Mosa (Moses) (A.S)
2. Zaboor revealed to Hazrat Dawood (David) (A.S)
3. Injeel (Bible) revealed to Hazrat Essa (Jesus) (A.S)
4. Quran revaled to Hazrat Muhammad (PBUH)

So, I also dont know that how much GAP was there between Torait and Zaboor, Zaboor and Injeel

There might be some pattern, or some arithmetic series.
OR
we can say Allah (GOD) knows better when to reveal a Book, when to send messenger, prophets.

But it is not part of my belief that a prophet comes after the gap of each 1000 years.

No offence to anyone, I have my belief and others have theirs.

Regards,
MeeM AliF SuaD
:) always the gentle man...
 

Lady B

noob
This doesn't make sense. After Jesus left his book didn't exist. It started to be written (as Gospels, letters and Revelations) from circa 34ad to circa 100ad, and as late as about 300 years after Jesus left it was all compiled into the New Testament. How can a compilation be corrupted before it is completed? I do admit that there was an awful lot of corruption, murder and destruction involved in that compilation, but I'm not sure that this is what you are refering to.

Are you leading this towards some failure of the Koran, and then, bingo!........ all the writings of the Bahai prophets to fill the gap? Where do you want to take this?
yes Thank You, In all due respect: why not come right out and say what you like? why use Christians as asking this question? we Obviously would never ask that, so use Bahai's and ask your own questions.:shrug:
 

TashaN

Veteran Member
Premium Member
Yes, the reason this question is important, is that, God in Quran,and according to Moslem belief is an All-powerfull being who is aware of everything. Any time there was a need for guidance, God, according to Quran, sends His Messenger to guide people. So, in my opinion, when Moslems claim Bible was corrupted but God took Jesus to sky, and left people with a corrupted Book for 600 years, is a major theological issue with Islamic belief.

Who told you Muslims believe that God left people with a corrupted holy book for 600 years? this is misleading! If you want to prove your religion is right, that's fine, but no need to spread lies about Islam and Muslims in order to prove that your religion creed is correct and everyone else got it wrong.
 

InvestigateTruth

Veteran Member
Who told you Muslims believe that God left people with a corrupted holy book for 600 years?
You may not believe that God left them with a Corrupted Bible for 600 years. I neither do. Neither I believe True Islam, and Quran teaches the Injil and Torah are corrupted.
But that is what Moslems believe, from what I have heard many times.
It seems to me, different sects of islam, may have different opinions. Just like many other things.

From my converstations, I never got a streight answer from any moslems so far.

This is what Wikipedia says:

"However, Islam holds that since all the Books prior to the Quran have been corrupted by human hands, Muslims are only to get their guidance from the Qur'an."
"Although Muslims believe that Jesus' original Gospel has been corrupted and lost, they believe that hints of the message of the original Gospel are still evident in the traditional Gospels of Christianity. However, like the Torah, they believe that there have been additions and subtractions made to the real story in these Gospels."

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Islamic_view_of_the_Christian_Bible




so, my questions are the followings:
1. Do you believe the current injil and Torah are corrupted?
if yes, then clear these questions for me, if you can:

A. When did it get corrupted?
B. what was their intention for corrupting it?
C. after it got corrupted, how long it took for God to send the next uncorrupted Book, Quran, according to Moslems belief?

Moreover,

Why did Quran was revealed after Injil, according to Moslems belief?

Thank you,
Hope you are not bothered with these questions. and please if you answer, give me a straight answers, as much as possible. I think, for most the questions i asked, a Yes, or No, or "I don't know" is possible.

p.s. I will not debate on this. But i may keep asking questions, untill I see if there is a convincing answer from Moslems.

Peace.
 
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InvestigateTruth

Veteran Member
This site has done a good job, to show, the idea that the text of Injil or Torah are corrupted, was not part of the original Islam.

Islam teaches the Torah is corrupted / tahrif, but what does that mean? | Judaism and Islam – comparing the similarities between Judaism and Islam

Al-Bukhari reported that Ibn ‘Abbas said [the Jews] alter and add although none among Allah’s creation can remove the words from His book, they alter and distort their apparent meaning”

In the year 796 Abu l-Rabi Muhammad ibn al-Layth (a courtier to Kalif Harun al-Rashid ) penned a letter to Constatine VI stating that the word “tahrif” should be read as the Jews had distorted their sense. “Whoever looks in the books of the prophets will find Muhammad (PBUH) mentioned, but the people of the book have obscured these references by changing their interpretation”
 
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gnostic

The Lost One
There is no THE ONE BOOK, but collection of books and letters.

And the collection of gospels and letters (known as the New Testament) written during Jesus' lifetime. All of them were written at the very least - 2 and a half decades later and certainly not before that time.
 
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