Reine
Member
Those are good questions. I think that if we 'think' something is damaging,, we have the responsibility to oppose it. For sure we have the right to express what we think, everyone does. Evedence always helps support an argument, but you can still state what you think without 'proof', it's your right to IMO.Does one just have to think it's damaging or does there have to be evidence that it is damaging? Does one's personal lack of desire to participate in one equal a moral objection to anyone else's choice to participate in one?
(I don't know if you're just restating or actually arguing a point, but I thought I'd throw those out there nonetheless.)
If you don't agree with a majority, you should also express that. For those opposed to some type of moral violation that they think is damaging, they have the right to and the responsibility to speak of if they are convinced it is damaging. Evedence when you are speaking about something that would be viewed as infringing on someone else's freedom would then be necessary, to prove it is damaging. There would be two standards then..
1. How would the expression of objection be satisfied with a moral opinion?
2. How would the expressin of objection be satisfied with proof of damage of a moral choice?