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Biblical Contradictions

URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
I don't know much about christianity but I wouldn't bet one shekel that the majority of christians will agree with that statement.

....and you Deut 13:1 are right, because if you read Matthew chapter 7 then you will know that Jesus taught the 'majority' today would be on the wide road leading to destruction and not eternal life.

I think too the majority of Christendom [so-called Christianity] would also not agree that the 'sheep' of Matthew [25 vs 31,32] are the people who are alive on earth today who can remain alive, and keep on living right here on earth into the start of Jesus 1000-year reign over earth.
 

waitasec

Veteran Member
The 4 [Matthew, Mark, Luke, John] make up one singular 'gospel'.
There is one gospel with four writers.
There are corresponding passages that 'when put together as a whole' make up a complete gospel.

your definition of complete differs from mine.

i see all four gospels as contradictory.
 

kylixguru

Well-Known Member
The 4 [Matthew, Mark, Luke, John] make up one singular 'gospel'.
There is one gospel with four writers.
There are corresponding passages that 'when put together as a whole' make up a complete gospel.
There are sequences that are irreconcilable if you try to make them all into one single thing.

Each Gospel is prophetically linked to the dispensation that a Day of Creation is linked to.

Matthew => Day 4.
Mark => Day 5.
Luke => Day 6.
John => Day 7/1.

Each dispensation has a bit of a different framework and so some of the Gospels appear to conflict but when you understand they pertain to separate dispensations there is no conflict.

We actually can already see the Gospel of John taking place in what it prophesies, provided you know how to read it as an oracle and provided you know how and where to look to see the fulfillment of it.
 

crazyrussian

No stranger to this topic
Originally Posted by [B said:
TouchedbytheLord[/b]
So what's the point of this, yet another "ooh the bible is wrong" post?

No, it's a testament to bibliolatry. According to certain people, if the Bible is indeed the word of god then it must be perfect because god is perfect. Therefore, any apparent contradiction must be a result of misinterpretation and/or taking the passage in question "out of context".

It shows an inability to separate doctrine from deity. It was once quite well understood that the Bible could be wrong and god still exist. The sacred texts, being the works of men, were not expected to be flawless anyway.

However, now (with the "certain people" mentioned above) the mindset seems to be that if the Bible is wrong then it can only mean that god lied and, furthermore (with the most hardcore of them), disproving the Bible automatically means disproving god. Not just their god but all gods everywhere.

It's a very sad, sad state of mind.

I love this post! You have the traditional christian mocking the truth of the Atheist. It's a Sad day in the Christian world when a person who does not believe In a perfect God, is able to present factual truths over the untenable speculations of the denominationally divided Christian world.

It's truely a Christian folly when they make the Claim that the bible was inspired by God. In doing so, they claim the word of God changed even when it's written in the bible that the word of God does not change. They claim that God is the author of confusion even though it is written in the bible that God is not the author of confusion, yet confusion exists in the bible when trying to fact search the 4 bible gospels in a cross comparison for single moments in the life of Jesus.

It is stated that the true worshippers of God are in spirit and in truth, but according to the Christian world, truth gets to be whatever the Christian claims truth to be. According to the bible, an athiest is more a true worshipper of God than the Christian who meets each week to tell each other truth mixed with lies from ancient recordings.

Todd
 
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URAVIP2ME

Veteran Member
The 'so-called Christian world' is the 'majority' that Jesus mentioned in Matthew chapter 7 that play false to him. Christendom developed by Constantine well after 1st-century Christianity ended.
Christendom makes up the so-called 'in name only' Christian world.

Religious truth according to Jesus was Scripture [ John 17 v 17 ]
Religious falsehoods are religious customs or traditions outside of Scripture but taught as Scripture.
That does not make Scripture as wrong but false clergy teachings as wrong.


-Acts 20 vs 29,30; Mark 7 vs 1-7,13; Matthew 15 v 9
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
This one was sunk starting in post 29 here

That doesn't actually solve anything though, as there are no verses pointed to as where in the OT such a thing is written. In fact, in all of the OT writings, as well as intertestamental writings, there is no such saying.
 

Shadow Wolf

Certified People sTabber & Business Owner
Most so-called Biblical contradictions are really nothing more than people trying to nit-pick. Of course Jesus' last words were different to different disciples because of the very simple fact they were, if they existed, three different people. Being overly zealous can apply to both sides.
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
That objection was covered here.
Your explanation though really isn't even an explanation. You don't give us any verses that may even imply what Jesus was saying. You simply state that it is there, without actually showing where or how it relates to what Jesus is saying.
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
Most so-called Biblical contradictions are really nothing more than people trying to nit-pick. Of course Jesus' last words were different to different disciples because of the very simple fact they were, if they existed, three different people. Being overly zealous can apply to both sides.
But some of the contradictions are quite more considerable, such as when was Jesus crucified. The synoptics say after Passover, while John says before. The reason for such is probably theological purposes.
 

Shadow Wolf

Certified People sTabber & Business Owner
But some of the contradictions are quite more considerable, such as when was Jesus crucified. The synoptics say after Passover, while John says before. The reason for such is probably theological purposes.
Of course some cannot be so easily dismissed, but when you include things that can be attributed to simple human error you are just looking too hard.
 

james2ko

Well-Known Member
Your explanation though really isn't even an explanation. You don't give us any verses that may even imply what Jesus was saying. You simply state that it is there, without actually showing where or how it relates to what Jesus is saying.

HUH????

That statement is not explicitly written but it is implicitly applied. Christ's statement in verse 46 is an allusion to the various references written about Himself in the OT. (Isaiah-the suffering servant, Jonah--three days three nights in the fish, etc). This is confirmed in vs 27.

We find this same principle utilized by Paul:

Gal 4:22 For it is written that Abraham had two sons: the one by a bondwoman, the other by a freewoman.​

Nowhere in the OT is the specific phrase, "Abraham had two sons: the one by a bondwoman, the other by a freewoman", found. But we know there are written scriptures which validate Paul's statement.

:shrug:
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist

I'm asking for OT verses that suggest that it was written what Jesus said. Jesus stated something was written. Well, where are those sources? What verses is he referring to. Where is his statement implicitly implied (as in what verses) in the OT?

Naming a couple of stories doesn't really work, especially when those stories don't suggest a prophecy, or that they will happen every again.
 

fallingblood

Agnostic Theist
Of course some cannot be so easily dismissed, but when you include things that can be attributed to simple human error you are just looking too hard.

I agree. I think many of the supposed contradictions are just ridiculous. I think many of the supposed errors are also ridiculous. But I do find the actual contradictions to be very interesting, as they can tell a lot about the ideas circulating during those times.
 

CynthiaCypher

Well-Known Member
I agree. I think many of the supposed contradictions are just ridiculous. I think many of the supposed errors are also ridiculous. But I do find the actual contradictions to be very interesting, as they can tell a lot about the ideas circulating during those times.

And about what the individual authors were trying to convey. I really don't care if John's account contradicts Mark's. Each author as a point that they want to put through.
 

james2ko

Well-Known Member
I'm asking for OT verses that suggest that it was written what Jesus said. Jesus stated something was written. Well, where are those sources? What verses is he referring to. Where is his statement implicitly implied (as in what verses) in the OT?

Luk 24:27 And beginning at Moses and all the Prophets, He expounded to them in all the Scriptures the things concerning Himself.

Christ explained all the scriptures concerning himself which most likely included the parallel between Jonah being in the belly of the fish for 3 days and 3 nights and Him being in the grave for the same amount of time.

Naming a couple of stories doesn't really work, especially when those stories don't suggest a prophecy, or that they will happen every again.

He confirmed the parallel of Jonah's story as a reference to Himself:

Mat_12:40 For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.​

In Luk 12:46, for example, Christ referred to Jonah's story as it was written in the OT--not as a literal word-for-word quote of Christ's resurrection but as a parallel reference to His resurrection. As I pointed out with Paul's example, the term "it is written" doesn't always equate to a direct, word-for-word quote from the OT. It can simply be a reference to a story, parallel, or prophecy in the OT.
 
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waitasec

Veteran Member
He confirmed the parallel of Jonah's story as a reference to Himself:

Mat_12:40 For as Jonah was three days and three nights in the belly of the great fish, so will the Son of Man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.​

In Luk 12:46, for example, Christ referred to Jonah's story as it was written in the OT--not as a literal word-for-word quote of Christ's resurrection but as a parallel reference to His resurrection. As I pointed out with Paul's example, the term "it is written" doesn't always equate to a direct, word-for-word quote from the OT. It can simply be a reference to a story, parallel, or prophecy in the OT.

:spit:

wait a second
...what was jesus running from?
 
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