No. That's not what is written. My friend. The prohibition never says anything about eating the fruit. The word fruit does not exist in the law given in Gen 2:17.
וּמֵעֵץ הַדַּעַת טוֹב וָרָע לֹא תֹאכַל מִמֶּנּוּ כִּי בְּיוֹם אֲכָלְךָ מִמֶּנּוּ מוֹת תָּמֽוּת׃
Ah, I see. In other words, you believe that I
assume there were fruit growing, correct?
But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, you shall not eat of it; for in the day that you eat of it you shall surely die.
Where is this zygote in the prohibition?
The Zygote is here...
Revelation 17:4
"And the woman was arrayed in purple and scarlet colour, and decked with gold and precious stones and pearls, having a golden cup in her hand full of abominations and filthiness of her fornication"
Yes, it is literal... as in Male Seed mixed with Female Seed. The Golden Cup is the Zygote from which we were all incarnated from. The Woman represents our biological Mother. Satan represents our biological Father.
When Jesus said,
'your Father the Devil', it was literal. Thus, the Forbidden Fruit had to have been the Egg Cell of the Woman fertilized by Satan, the so called 'Serpent'. How else could Satan be our biological Father? Lilith? Where is that written?
Thus, if God said that the First Adam would 'surely die' then that is exactly what happened. His wife Ishshah also died.
How can one be re-birthed from the dead without a Zygote to be conceived into?
Also....
Did Adam name his wife twice for no reason? One minute her name is Ishshah, the next it is Eve? No.
Whenever God creates a new lifeform, it must be named...
Genesis 2:19
"And out of the ground the LORD God formed every beast of the field, and every fowl of the air; and brought them unto Adam to see what he would call them: and whatsoever Adam called every living creature, that was the name thereof."
Adam 'called' his wife 'Ishshah' because she was newly created.
After Ishshah died, God re-created her. Therefore, Adam had to give this new creation a name.
Genesis 3:20
"And Adam called his wife’s name Eve; because she was the mother of all living."
She is now called 'The Mother of All Living' because she now has a reproductive organs... i.e., a Womb.
1). Now you've flip-flopped. First you're saying it can mean more than one thing. Now you seem to be flopping away from that. So which is it? Can the verse have more than 1 meaning or not?
Yes, however you are demanding that I interpret it in a way that does not fit the context.
2). This verse from Mark is completely irrelevant towards whether or not a couple is considered husband and wife *lacking* consummation.
I believe it is relevant. Again, I use the entire Bible as context, not just the Old Testament.
Why is New Jerusalem the 'Mother of us all', yet she is the Bride of the Lamb?
Is New Jerusalem both Mother and Wife at the same time? There is more going on here than meets the eye.