AK4
Well-Known Member
"Rightly dividing the Word" doesn't entail the kind of things you are perpetrating upon the Bible.
So now I'm a "type." I thought Jesus asked us to be one, as he and the Father are One...
I must have been mistaken.
Of course not, because the sum of the Word is not reached by cobbling together snippets that happen to agree with what you believe.
That's because your version of it isn't so plain.
Name them and we'll see. You're definition of who's apostate and who isn't may be completely off-base.
Reveal the lie here:
::sound of crickets chiriping::
No, I believe this basic tenet of truth.
In a pig's eye.
Jesus isn't the Father. Jesus is the Son. Both are God. One is God Incarnate. The other is not.
If you "rightly divide the Word," you will note that the question asked of Jesus (to which he provides the answer, which I paraphrased) was "Show us the Father," not, "Show us the Father and the Holy Spirit." His answer in no way advocates the position that Jesus is the Father. Only that the Son perfectly reflects the Father (as we all do, but imperfectly). That's why Jesus doesn't mention the Holy Spirit.
That's right. He is God the Son.
Why is it so hard for you to see that we do see it?
The Trinity doctrine states that God is One God in three Persons: the Father, Son and Holy Spirit.
Because, in those particular passages, the point of the discussion does not include the Holy Spirit -- only the Father and the Son.
Because of Jesus' dual nature: Fully God and fully human. All human beings have a God. But God (as expressed by "Father") does not have a God. God is God.
We can't see God the Father. We can see God the Son. When we are no longer in our mortal bodies, the assumption is that we will see God the Father. Where's the problem?
We're not saying that Jesus is God the Father. We're saying that Jesus is God the Son. Jesus says that no one has seen the Father. Then he says that those who have seen him [Jesus] have seen the Father. Why? Because Jesus perfectly reflects the Father, yet is not the Father.
The ancient hymn quoted in Philippians 2 says that.
Just as the Father gives the rest of us all that we have and possess.
Yes! Yes! Yes!
I don't find that in Philippians...
Look at vs. 27b: "But when it says, 'All things are put in subjection,' it is plain that this does not include the one who put all things in subjection under him." Apparently, for a time, Christ is not in subjection to the Father.
We aren't. No one is claiming that.
That's because dominion isn't part of the Holy Spirit's job description.
How else would God have become fully human? How is it that you were conceived by the application of sperm to egg, yet you are the son of your father?
I don't care what you say about the scriptures. Jesus and the Bible are not the same entity -- no matter how hard you want them to be. Jesus is the Divine Principle -- or "Word" -- Logos. The Bible is not the Divine Principle -- or Logos.
Jesus is Truth. Jesus does have "all the answers." The Bible does not. Nor do we.
I'm sorry that bothers you. Jesus often taught hard lessons, some of which (such as "Eat my flesh and drink my blood") caused many disciples to part company with him (such as you have done with the Church). Only the Twelve stood fast through the difficult sayings. We could all take a lesson from that.
I will expose your unscriptural teachings, but i just wanted say its awfully funny how you didnt use not one scripture. And notice there is a big difference between scripture and bible verses
I also want everyone to notice mans reasoning and the deep entreaching of the egyptian trinity being taught by the church verses the plain Words of God coming up.
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