So you are not for any legal restrictions on abortion. Is this accurate?
That is not entirely accurate, but only because I believe that no law can forsee all circumstances. If that were possible, then I would have little problem with a law that forbade abortion after fetal viability unless a medical professional deemed it a threat to the mother's life. But as I said earlier, that is by far the fewest number of abortions performed anyway.
The terminally ill person still has a right to life. No one should be able to take their life without consent.
Of course, but they will not (nor will you) be able to avoid dying. But what about with their consent? What is your position on Medical Assistance in Dying, when a person requests it?
(It's amusing that suicide was a criminal offence in some places, notably England and Wales until 1961. I often wondered what the punishment was for successfully killing yourself.)
You can have a right even though you don't want to or cannot act on it. I choose not to own a gun, that does not mean I don't have the right to own one? A person in a coma has a right to free speech even though they cannot act upon it.
You choose not to own a gun, so you don't. That is a kind of action, a choice you make yourself.
The example of someone in a coma seems very odd to me. Not quite a fallacy, but something else.
The statement doesn't fit into a fallacy category exactly, but it might be considered a form of flawed reasoning. It seems to be mixing concepts of rights and capacities in a way that doesn't quite align logically.
However, if we were to scrutinize it, we might interpret it as a form of "false analogy" or "category error." This is because the concept of freedom of speech typically applies to individuals who have the capacity to express themselves verbally or in writing, whereas a person in a coma lacks that capacity. So, drawing an analogy between the two situations is not logically sound.
It could also be seen as an example of "equivocation," where the meaning of "freedom of speech" is stretched to include a scenario where the usual conditions for exercising that right are not present.
Ultimately, it's not a clear-cut fallacy, but rather a flawed argument that conflates different concepts in a misleading way.
No, the mother in almost all cases chose the actions that got her pregnant, that is where she had the right to exercise her liberty. The unborn human life did not choose to be created. We either limit the mothers liberty for nine months or the child's liberty forever. If you have sex you have a responsibility for those actions which one is pregnancy. I assume you agree that if you buy a gun and leave it loaded on the table you are somewhat responsible for a child that picks it up and fires it.
So, are you suggesting that if you have made an error, all further rights pertaining to that error are no longer yours?
My mother was a teen when she got pregnant with me in 1947, and she was still a teen girl when my father got another girl pregnant with my brother -- who is far short of 9 months younger than me! -- also in 1947. As it happened, both me and that brother (who I only spoke to for the first time just 3 weeks ago!) wound up not being cared for by anyone related to us. I was never adopted, and just fostered in 40 foster homes and a couple of orphanages until I was 18 and dumped on the streets. My brother, lucky for him, was adopted as a very young child.
Now, she couldn't get a legal abortion back then, of course -- and I eagerly await your inevitable question "would you prefer that she could?" -- but that sort of thing can happen to a girl today. Isn't it possible she is charmed off her feet by a man, makes the "mistake" of getting pregnant by him, only to discover he's a violent, abusive sort? See, the man my mother married was exactly that, and he nearly killed me twice, which is why I wound up in Children's Aid care.
For myself, I do not punish people for making errors. I've made enough of my own to know better.
The Declaration of Independence is not law. We do not have unalienable rights by a creator.
Rights conflict all the time. That is what the courts are for. But why is it right to give all the rights to the mother and not the unborn? I view the unborn as human life until viable, then as a child. You say both have liberty, but just assert the mother's liberty is the one that matters. Why?
And you are asserting that the fetus's is the only one that matters, and would deny it to the mother. Why?