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Holes in the trinity

Redemptionsong

Well-Known Member
Hi .Kaleb,
The reason I don't have a difficulty with the passages that you quote from John's gospel is because Jesus is speaking after having received the Holy Spirit at his baptism. His will is that of his Father. His own spirit has come from heaven. As I said earlier, Jesus Christ is both fully man and fully God. His humanity did have a starting point - conception. His Spirit is eternal.

As for seeing, I understand that the spirit of God can see the things of God, whereas the eyes of man (as flesh) cannot see the spirit or heavenly realm. This is why no man has ever seen God. But those upon whom the spirit has rested, or indwelt, have seen heavenly visions.
 

Redemptionsong

Well-Known Member
cataway, are you saying that the word 'own' should be erased? I'm happy to do so if it makes clear that I'm referring to the Holy Spirit.
 

Redemptionsong

Well-Known Member
In John 17: 4,5 ; Jesus said, 'I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest me to do. And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.' [Jesus is saying he left glory in heaven to do the work of his Father on earth.]

What happened when Jesus was sent into this world? From this passage in John, there was a time 'before the world was' when the Son (in relation to Father) was in glory in heaven. Add to this Galatians 4:4-6; 'But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, to redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons [Jesus being the only begotten son]. And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father.' [This would suggest that faith in Christ is what makes a person a son - and is followed by the sending of the Spirit of sonship]

The Father sent forth his son, MADE OF A WOMAN, MADE UNDER THE LAW. What does this mean? The ovum of Mary was miraculously fertilized by the power of the Holy Spirit. So began a 'normal' human pregnancy which culminated in the birth of a human baby. Did the baby have a body of flesh, a human soul and a human spirit? In what sense was Jesus the 'Son of God' before his baptism? It certainly seems that he grew up under the law. Was it that he demonstrated unfaltering faith in his Father that qualifies him to be called SON?

And in John 17 verse 11, 'And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we are.' [One in Spirit?]

And again, in verse 22,23; 'And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one: I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me.' [Is this glory not the glory of his Spirit, the Spirit of love?]
 
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.kaleb

Member
QUOTE="Redemptionsong, post: 4263403, member: 53579"]Hi .Kaleb,
The reason I don't have a difficulty with the passages that you quote from John's gospel is because Jesus is speaking after having received the Holy Spirit at his baptism. His will is that of his Father. His own spirit has come from heaven. As I said earlier, Jesus Christ is both fully man and fully God. His humanity did have a starting point - conception. His Spirit is eternal.
can you clarify 2 points.
1/ his own spirit came down from heaven? What do you mean, and who sent it?
2/ when you say Jesus is fully man and fully God, are you speaking about his earthly existence, pre-human existence, or post resurrection existence?
3/ if Jesus is fully human and fully God still whilst now in heaven, how do you reconcile (King James Version) 1Corinthians15:50 Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption?

As for seeing, I understand that the spirit of God can see the things of God, whereas the eyes of man (as flesh) cannot see the spirit or heavenly realm. This is why no man has ever seen God. But those upon whom the spirit has rested, or indwelt, have seen heavenly visions.
i don't know if you have had a chance to read my response to your salvation question, but at the end of it I quoted Paul, who I think explains the relationship between the resurrected Jesus, and Jehovah, in very clear terms. Can you give me your explanation of (Byington) Hebrews 1:9 You loved rectitude and hated wickedness; for this reason God, your God, has anointed you with the oil of joy beyond your fellows,”
- Jesus has been resurrected back to heavenly life at the time of Paul writing this, so how is it that Jesus is God, when he has a God?
 

Redemptionsong

Well-Known Member
Hi .kaleb,
Point 1 - I was wrong to write 'own', as it gives the impression I am talking about the human spirit and not the Holy Spirit. Jesus received the Holy Spirit from his Father in heaven.
Point 2 - When speaking about Jesus Christ as both fully human and fully God, I am referring to his earthly existence. His pre and post earthly existence are, I believe, in glory, as part of the godhead.
I will add, however, that when Christ, the head, takes his place in heaven, his body, the Church, remains on earth.
Point 3 is covered by Point 2.

As regards Hebrews 1:9, the passage is a direct quotation from Psalm 45:6,7.
Paul makes it clear in verse 8 that the quotation from Psalms is directed at the risen Son. He has a throne, and is called God.
Verse 9 tells us how the Son came to be on the throne. At some time previous to his enthronement, the Son was anointed above his fellows. If this were a time on earth, as I believe it was, then it is quite correct to call Jesus' Father 'God'.
 

.kaleb

Member
"Redemptionsong, post: 4264880, member: 53579"]Hi .kaleb,
Point 1 - I was wrong to write 'own', as it gives the impression I am talking about the human spirit and not the Holy Spirit. Jesus received the Holy Spirit from his Father in heaven.
Thanks for clarifying.

Point 2 - When speaking about Jesus Christ as both fully human and fully God, I am referring to his earthly existence. His pre and post earthly existence are, I believe, in glory, as part of the godhead.
I will add, however, that when Christ, the head, takes his place in heaven, his body, the Church, remains on earth.
Interesting. Not many I converse with who share some of your views have explained it this clearly, and not many actually point out that the fully God,& fully human refers only to Jesus earthly existence, so again thanks for clarifying that.

I guess where that reasoning for me raises a few more questions is, can God be considered mortal?
Was Jesus immortal before coming to earth as a human?



Point 3 is covered by Point 2.

As regards Hebrews 1:9, the passage is a direct quotation from Psalm 45:6,7.
Paul makes it clear in verse 8 that the quotation from Psalms is directed at the risen Son. He has a throne, and is called God.
Verse 9 tells us how the Son came to be on the throne. At some time previous to his enthronement, the Son was anointed above his fellows. If this were a time on earth, as I believe it was, then it is quite correct to call Jesus' Father 'God'.
ok I can kind of see your reasoning there. But then how does that fit in with Jesus being fully God as well as human whilst on earth?
As a final question, can you give me your explanation, or breakdown of (Byington) Revelation 3:14 “And to the angel of the church in Laodicea write, ‘Says the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of God’s creation:

• who is the amen, the faithful and true witness
• who is being described as the beginning of Gods creation?
 

Redemptionsong

Well-Known Member
Believe me .kaleb, it's as a fellow traveller on the journey of life that I offer my humble opinion. All I can do is submit myself to the guidance of the Holy Spirit and ask that my understanding be renewed.

One of the things that I believe confuses the issue of God's redemptive act (coming to earth, paying the price for sin, and redeeming the faithful) is that the figure at 'centre stage' is BOTH human and divine (on earth). Jesus Christ can be viewed from a human perspective, OR from a divine perspective.

One of the most interesting passages that is used by Jehovah's Witnesses to prove that Jesus is not God is Matthew 19:16,17(also found in Mark and Luke). Let's have a look at it.

'And, behold, one came and said unto him, Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life? And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God:'

This is a remarkable passage, not found in John's gospel which looks upon Jesus as the Son of God. In it, we see that the man posing the question does not see God in Jesus. He sees only man. Jesus, in his reply does not deny that he is God, but he does say that only God is good. In other words, if the man does believe that Jesus is truly good then maybe what he is seeing is God's spirit in Jesus! It's a challenge to the man to make up his mind about Jesus. Is he truly the Christ?
 
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Redemptionsong

Well-Known Member
Revelation 3:14 - The Lord makes an announcement to the angel. 'Amen' is the proper name of the Lord Jesus Christ. See 2 Corinthians 1:20,21. 'The faithful and true witness' is Jesus Christ. 'The beginning of God's creation' is also Christ, but it's not to be understood in the passive sense, but in the active sense. In other words, it means 'the beginner', not 'the first created'. How do we know this? Because the same writer, John, wrote in John 14:23, 'Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him.' If Christ were the first created it would not be possible for the Spirit of the Father and Son to 'make our abode' in him (ie in those that love Christ).
 

Redemptionsong

Well-Known Member
The problem I have with the theological position that states that Jesus Christ is not God, is that it effectively leaves us unredeemed. God has not paid the price, he has remained above, remote and distant. Man is left to justify himself by works.

The problem I have with the theology of the Catholic Church is that it refuses to divide the nature of Jesus Christ as the Son of God on earth. This makes Mary the MOTHER OF GOD. This does not, to my understanding, fit with the scriptures.

A more accurate understanding must lie in a RIGHTLY DIVIDED WORD.
 

.kaleb

Member
Believe me .kaleb, it's as a fellow traveller on the journey of life that I offer my humble opinion. All I can do is submit myself to the guidance of the Holy Spirit and ask that my understanding be renewed.

One of the things that I believe confuses the issue of God's redemptive act (coming to earth, paying the price for sin, and redeeming the faithful) is that the figure at 'centre stage' is BOTH human and divine (on earth). Jesus Christ can be viewed from a human perspective, OR from a divine perspective.

One of the most interesting passages that is used by Jehovah's Witnesses to prove that Jesus is not God is Matthew 19:16,17(also found in Mark and Luke). Let's have a look at it.

'And, behold, one came and said unto him, Good Master, what good thing shall I do, that I may have eternal life? And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God:'

This is a remarkable passage, not found in John's gospel which looks upon Jesus as the Son of God. In it, we see that the man posing the question does not see God in Jesus. He sees only man. Jesus, in his reply does not deny that he is God, but he does say that only God is good. In other words, if the man does believe that Jesus is truly good then maybe what he is seeing is God's spirit in Jesus! It's a challenge to the man to make up his mind about Jesus. Is he truly the Christ?
IMO that passage is highlighting Jesus humility, as Paul emphasizes in Philippians 2:5-7. Jesus always gave glory to father, even tho in every sense, Jesus was a good man. Such was his nature, he did not seek glory for himself, but always for God.

It is interesting that the NWT renders John 1:18 the only-begotten god who is at the Father’s side is the one who has explained Him.
I feel this is appropriate, as it not only identifies Jesus origin, but also that he is the perfect representative of God almighty. He reflected his fathers qualities, his love, justice,wisdom, power etc. because he so perfectly did this, he was able to say "he who has seen me, has seen the father." Certainly I would agree with you in that Gods spirit was in Jesus.
 

.kaleb

Member
Revelation 3:14 - The Lord makes an announcement to the angel. 'Amen' is the proper name of the Lord Jesus Christ. See 2 Corinthians 1:20,21. 'The faithful and true witness' is Jesus Christ. 'The beginning of God's creation' is also Christ, but it's not to be understood in the passive sense, but in the active sense. In other words, it means 'the beginner', not 'the first created'. How do we know this? Because the same writer, John, wrote in John 14:23, 'Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him.' If Christ were the first created it would not be possible for the Spirit of the Father and Son to 'make our abode' in him (ie in those that love Christ).
I must admit, I don't quite see the connection with John 14:23.
I believe the scriptures indicate that Jesus had a definite beginning, that Jehovah caused him into existence.
The scriptures I believe prove this in particular is proverbs 8:22-30. Now most trinitarians that I have discussed this passage with simply dismiss it as talking about wisdom. And certainly the first part of chapter 8 certainly is talking about wisdom, almost attributing personality to the quality.

But the context changes from vs 22 onwards, and I'd be very interested in your break down of it, and to avoid as much bias as possible, I'll use the byington as the translation.

(Byington) Proverbs 8:22 "Jehovah framed me first in line, foremost of his works in the past."
Some translations say possessed or produced rather than framed. More than just wisdom must be involved here, for that quality never was "produced, or framed". It never began to exist because Jehovah has always existed and he has always been wise. So what is being talked about here?

Vs 23 Of old I was constituted, at first before the origins of earth.
• who is the "I" being mentioned here?

Vs 24 When there were no deeps I came to birth, when there were no springs, sources of water;
• who came to birth?

Vs 25 Earlier than mountains I was planted, before hills I came to birth,
• construction or formation of the earth is being described, but still, identification of the one coming to birth is required.

Vs 26 When he had not made earth and open spaces and the multitudinous particles of the soil of the world.
• who is the "he" do you think mentioned here?

Vs 27 When he fastened the sky I was there, when he arched a vault over the face of the deep,
• again, who is the "he" & who is the "I"?

Vs 28 When he braced the ether above, when he fortified the springs of the deep,
Vs 29 When he set his limit for the sea and water does not overstep his dictate, When he strengthened the foundations of earth,
Vs 30 I was master-workman at his side And was taking my pleasure day by day, playing before him at every time,

•Who is the master worker that as vs 24 & 25 says "came to birth?"
Bear in mind, the time frame is dealing with construction of the earth.
- the master workman was at his side? Whose side?

The King James Version says in vs 31: Rejoicing in the habitable part of his earth; and my delights were with the sons of men.

Who is being described in these verses? What are the implications?
 

.kaleb

Member
The problem I have with the theological position that states that Jesus Christ is not God, is that it effectively leaves us unredeemed. God has not paid the price, he has remained above, remote and distant. Man is left to justify himself by works.
I guess how you see the ransom may determine whether or not you believe it has been payed or not.
A ransom as described by one dictionary is:
3. a means of deliverance or rescue from punishment for sin, especially the payment of a redemptive fine.


Adam sold us, all humankind, into sin and death. The ransom is Jehovah's means to deliver, or save, humankind from sin and death.

So if a ransom is the price paid to bring about a release or rescue, or to buy something back, Adam was a perfect human who lost sold us into slavery and sin, it would take a perfect man, to cover or pay the cost of what was lost.
For instance, if I was driving a brand new Mercedes, and someone smashed into it and wrote it of, I would expect to be compensated with a brand new Mercedes. Not a ford, or nissan etc... It would have to be like for like.

IMO that is why Jesus had to come to earth as fully human, as Adam was not divine. Deuteronomy 32:4 says Gods ways are always faithful and just. God is the one who provided the ransom, the ransom being his only begotten son Jesus Christ. As (King James Version) 1John 4:9,10 says: In this was manifested the love of God toward us, because that God sent his only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through him. 10 Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that he loved us, and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.

By his deliberate and willful sinning, Adam lost all mankind our birthright, perfect human existence free from trouble, sin, death, pain, suffering etc... And as he then became the carrier of sin, he could not help but pass it on to his offspring.

1 Corinthians 15:45 (King James Version) says: And so it is written, The first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam was made a quickening spirit.
- Jesus, as a perfect human, in a like for like exchange with Adam, really stepped into Adam's place in order to save us. Jesus paid the price for Adam's sin. Jesus thus brought hope to Adam’s offspring.

  • This ransom price was accepted as Romans 3:24,25 explains: For all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, and it is as a free gift that they are being declared righteous by his undeserved kindness through the release by the ransom paid by Christ Jesus.


The problem I have with the theology of the Catholic Church is that it refuses to divide the nature of Jesus Christ as the Son of God on earth. This makes Mary the MOTHER OF GOD. This does not, to my understanding, fit with the scriptures.

A more accurate understanding must lie in a RIGHTLY DIVIDED WORD.
to me I see Mary as the vessel if you like by which God chose to have his son come into the world. She had special favour in that she was the most privileged of all women ever to be born to be shown such favour. She should not be worshiped tho.
 

Redemptionsong

Well-Known Member
.kaleb, this is interesting.
In quoting from 1 Corinthians 15, you say that the ransom was 'a like for like' exchange. But was it? In 1 Corinthians 15:47 it says, 'The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is [the Lord] from heaven.' It then goes on to say, 'As is the earthy, such are they also that are earthy: and as is the heavenly, such are they also that are heavenly. And as we have borne the image of the earthy, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly.'

If it was a like for like exchange then the likeness was of Jesus under the law, from birth to baptism. Whereas Adam proved himself disobedient, Jesus proved himself obedient and pleasing to his Father.

At his baptism, Jesus receives the Holy Spirit, the spirit of sonship from heaven. He is now able to say, 'I am the resurrection and the life' (although still flesh and blood). Only after resurrection, and ascension, is Jesus' mortal body turned to immortal.

I would agree with you about the references in Proverbs (Wisdom) being to Christ. But when you say that Christ must therefore have a beginning, I disagree. Do the words you speak not have a beginning? Do those words not exist in your spirit before they take the form of sounds? Isn't it the same with God? His word resided in his spirit before taking form. The Word that was breathed is itself Spirit. The Word is God.
 
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Redemptionsong

Well-Known Member
.kaleb, you say that Jesus was 'the perfect representative' of God. You also say that the spirit of God was in Jesus. What do you mean? Was God in Jesus? Is the spirit of God NOT God?
 

Redemptionsong

Well-Known Member
.kaleb, let's say that an ocean of pure water overflows the land to form a lake, which, in turn, overflows into a series of ponds. All inland waters originated from the ocean, but all three exist as distinct yet connected entities - an ocean, a lake and a series of ponds, all containing pure water. Now, if anyone were to drink a glass of water without knowing the source, it would not be possible to distinguish between the water from the ocean, the water from the lake, or the water from one of the ponds. This analogy may have limited value and accuracy, but it describes the way in which I see the trinity. God the Father is above, omnipresent. God, the Word, comes to earth as his Son. The Son is amongst. Following resurrection and ascension, God the Father, together with the risen Son, send the Holy Spirit (also God) to dwell within each believer, forming the body of Christ on earth.

Do you not see things this way?
 

.kaleb

Member
.kaleb, this is interesting.
In quoting from 1 Corinthians 15, you say that the ransom was 'a like for like' exchange. But was it? In 1 Corinthians 15:47 it says, 'The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is [the Lord] from heaven.' It then goes on to say, 'As is the earthy, such are they also that are earthy: and as is the heavenly, such are they also that are heavenly. And as we have borne the image of the earthy, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly.'
Jesus himself says: Moreover, no man has ascended into heaven but the one who descended from heaven, the Son of man.- John 3:13

If it was a like for like exchange then the likeness was of Jesus under the law, from birth to baptism. Whereas Adam proved himself disobedient, Jesus proved himself obedient and pleasing to his Father.
At his baptism, Jesus receives the Holy Spirit, the spirit of sonship from heaven. He is now able to say, 'I am the resurrection and the life' (although still flesh and blood). Only after resurrection, and ascension, is Jesus' mortal body turned to immortal.
and you have nailed here. (No pun intended)Peter tells us: For Christ died once for all time for sins, a righteous person for unrighteous ones, in order to lead you to God. He was put to death in the flesh but made alive in the spirit.- 1Peter 3:18.

Paul also confirms that Jesus received immortality upon his return to heaven, immortality basically meaning immunity to death. Could he have had this immortality prior to becoming a human, and being "fully human and yet fully God" whilst on earth?
How would you explain that?


It was that like for like exchange, Adam created sinless that lost us perfection, and everlasting life, it was Christ, born sinless as a flesh and blood human that regained the opportunity thru the ransom to give me, and you and all of redeemable mankind our birthright back, the birthright that Adam was meant to pass on to a righteous and sinless offspring.

I would agree with you about the references in Proverbs (Wisdom) being to Christ. But when you say that Christ must therefore have a beginning, I disagree. Do the words you speak not have a beginning? Do those words not exist in your spirit before they take the form of sounds? Isn't it the same with God? His word resided in his spirit before taking form. The Word that was breathed is itself Spirit. The Word is God.
That is again, an interesting way to look at it.
That reasoning poses a few more questions.
1/ Jesus said "no man has ascended into heaven, but the one who descended from heaven, the son of man"- John 3:13
So, what form did Jesus exist in prior to coming to earth? When did the spirit take form?

2/ if as you agree, proverbs 8:22-30 is speaking of Jesus as wisdom personified, how is it says about him,
• When there were no depths, I was brought forth; vs 24 (kjv) a footnote says as with labour pains. If Christ had always existed, why would such things be said of him?

• (American Standard Version) Proverbs 8:30 Then I was by him, as a master workman; And I was daily his delight, Rejoicing always before him...

When you talk about a beginning, what we are also talking about is origin as well. Jesus existence can be traced back to a beginning, just like words start out or begin as a thought, then are expressed verbally.
Jehovah however, has no beginning. (Byington) Psalms 93:2 Your throne is firm since ancient times; your being is from eternity.


Genesis 1:26 says: Then God said: “Let us make man in our image, according to our likeness" whom was he talking to, and what likeness did "they" share? I trying to establish how you see Jesus prior to his earthly coming.
 

Redemptionsong

Well-Known Member
Hi .kaleb, I agree that some of these ideas are tricky, but we have to establish some scriptural 'corner-stones of certainty'.

If we begin by stating that GOD IS SPIRIT, we have one such foundation stone. At no point does God become mortal or corruptible.

The next point is more difficult, but it must be clarified. Is God ONE in SPIRIT (essence)? I would say, emphatically, YES! One in will, and one in love.

Now, I ask myself, can the ONE SPIRIT of God take a form. Can the one Spirit of God be in relationship with Himself? It's at this point that the difficulties arise. If the Son of God existed in heaven, alongside the Father, prior to the birth of Jesus on earth, then I understand that Son to be spiritual, incorruptible and immortal. In fact, that Son does not easily distinguish himself from the Father before the incarnation. But there are clues that God, who is normally transcendent, chose moments before the birth of Jesus to appear on earth in a human form (as before Abraham). This was not in flesh and blood but it was in the likeness of a human being.

This leads me to think that God's spirit is capable of both transcendent omnipresence and spiritual form (appearance) at the SAME TIME. The glory of God must fill the heavens and earth. He created both.

How can these ideas be reconciled with all that scripture says? Firstly, to believe that LIVING SPIRIT is the essence of God. Like EXISTENCE, God underlies all LIFE. God's WORD is formed within the SPIRIT, and is SPIRIT. As soon as the WORD is spoken or willed, you have CREATION. As soon as you have the WORD, you have the SON - the true image or likeness of GOD. You cannot at any time say that the WORD of GOD is not God. It is as spiritual in thought as it is in expression. Does it have an origin or creation? Yes. Does it exist eternally with God? Yes. Both statements must be true.

Now we have to translate this into earthly terms. God is the creator and Lord of heaven AND earth. So earthly existence becomes like a parable. There's a visual story with a spiritual revelation attached. GOD'S WORD takes centre stage. The sons of Adam are saved by the SON of God, who in earthly flesh is Jesus, the Christ. The King of Kings on earth must also be ONE with the King of Kings in heaven.
 

sojourner

Annoyingly Progressive Since 2006
Do you think maybe your just reading it wrong because you just believe in something different?
No. I've been educated to read past my biases. The reading of the text serves to inform belief, not to bolster preexisting belief.
 
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