Flankerl said:
↑"Jehovah our God is one Jehovah." - De 6:4
Seriously that's how JWs translate this part of the Shema?
Hilarious."
Hilarity aside what IS the correct translation please?
No challenge to you pesonally, I'm inquiring, need to know.
It's important to me, my spiritual self, to understand correct meaning.
I've read, and like many biblical matters, that the oridinal translation of the KJV is a terrible translation done at the request of the King of England.
The King provided minimum funds, and scholars to translate a new Bible for the Church of England. Does anyone doubt that a "request" of the King wasn't a "do it with what is provided, do it fast, do it for England, or else"?
Does one not see that politics and power entered the minds of the translators?
The Council of Nicea was a command from pagan Constitine. The Council was to put togther all the alleged surviving texts into canon.
There is no documentation that Constintine was ever baptised as a Jew or Christian.
I'm not saying the KJV was a poor translation, merely echoing what I've read.
Do we not think that modern schollars with todays techno goodies would not be able to translate better today than about 1700 years ago?
An example of translation problems:
There are problems of language with the KJV. In fact, I have a book called "The King James Bible Word Book." This book is over 400 pages in length detailing words used in the KJV that have changed their meaning since that translation was first published in 1610. For example, in Psalm 119:47, the Psalmist says (KJV) "I prevented the dawning of the morning." The ordinary modern reader is a bit mystified by his meaning. That's because the word "prevent" has changed its meaning in English. In the days of the translators of the KJV, "prevent" meant "to go before, anticipate, or precede." The RSV correctly translates this verse "I rise before dawn."
I'm not knocking anyones perfered Bible, I doubt any modern translations have everything nailed down with the hammer of perfection, ergo why I aks questions, dig for answers.........and remain so confused.
What do people here think of the New World Translation?
Does anyone really not see that a governing power might not twisted Scripture to make it fit the churches doctrine?
For centuries after Christ died the comman man could not read or write.
How easy and criminal it might have been for the ruling "church" to corrupt what was written to take advantage of the illiterate? There is power in church membership, the masses follow church doctrine even into wars as we all know.
The larger the membership the greater the "donations" the greater the political influence, the more distorted the truth becomes until some meanings are lost.
Today most can read/write/inquire; like we here do. We have information, both accurate and questionable at our fingertips due to techno tools.
It's more difficult to mislead people that have an inquiring mind.
I hope.