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Is prostitution "immoral"?

Songbird

She rules her life like a bird in flight
It's not a double standard at all - The male is the dominant partner in intercourse because he is doing the insertion.
That made me laugh. Oh man....you know, I don't mean to pick on you, but I have to wonder how much experience you have in this arena and if you know what dominance is.

this is key difference.
Insertion = dominance? No, not a key difference. Or femdomme wouldn't be so appealing on a mass scale.

you must also factor in the emotional effects too - sex for most men is more of a physical function with little in the way of feelings , yet for women this is not the case.

also, men have a biological need to sleep with many women so to get paid for it at the same time is a kind of double bonus.

not very PC for sure, but just a fact of nature though I doubt you will agree.

Now, if a woman has plenty of money and other means why would she choose to continue as a sex-worker?

Could you back up the "fact of nature" with some facts?

TMI alert: When I was pregnant I orgasmed in my sleep. What kind of fact of nature is that?
 

Sunstone

De Diablo Del Fora
Premium Member
Let's face it: Only men get horny. That's just a fact of nature. Therefore women should realize their sexual satisfaction is not nearly as urgent of an issue as it is to satisfy the man in the equation. I speak scientifically here. Especially when I say, "what you penetrate, you dominate". And I would have a lot more to say on this topic if my mistress were to allow it.
 

nnmartin

Well-Known Member
we are talking about prostitution here though.

Now, if a man pays to be dominated it is a different sceanario as he is actually the one creating the situation.

The girl will go along with it in order to get paid, but she is not dominating him other than in a superficial way as part of the act.

Real dominance in the bedroom is when the woman takes charge of the situation from start to finish.

With a sex-worker it would be a kind of pseudo-dominance only.
 

madchis

New Member
so you say here that you only had intercourse the once and charged a very high amount of money for it.

so two questions arise here.

-do you think having intercourse with clients is immmoral , hence your abstinence and do you think that charging an 'outrageuous' sum for this one time is exploitation of the the man?

No I do not think that having intercourse with a client is immoral. And no I do not feel like it is exploitation of the man. He had plenty of money and would have blown it somehow. He knew what the price was and he was ok with it. It was am agreement. How would that be exploitation?
 

nnmartin

Well-Known Member
exploitation because maybe he had no other way of obtaining the action.

The same way in that a low paid factory worker has to accept the wages on offer due to lack of alternatives.

How much do you think a man should have to pay?
 

garrydons

Member
If we understand immorality based on the Bible, transgression of the Law is immoral. Prostitution, fornication and adultery is considered a sin. Jesus (Yeshua) himself warned the prostitute to go and sin no more.
 

nnmartin

Well-Known Member
in the Bible perhaps, but I think the topic here is more about the secular field.

do you think whoring is wrong - either by worker or john?
 

St Giordano Bruno

Well-Known Member
Although I describe myself as an amoralist which means I am on the whole indifferent to moral issues I view prostitution as being far less "immoral" than slavery which is frequently sanctioned as being the norm in the bible.
 

nnmartin

Well-Known Member
for sure - but is it even immoral in any way?

I would say that being a prostitute is immoral to some degree but being a John is fine.
 

Draka

Wonder Woman
for sure - but is it even immoral in any way?

I would say that being a prostitute is immoral to some degree but being a John is fine.

Why do you think that? Why is the prostitute immoral by any degree and the john isn't? Do they not partake in the same transaction? It is the same action and it requires both of them for it to happen, so how is one immoral and one isn't?
 

nnmartin

Well-Known Member
why am I not surprised that you have leapt in out of the blue to join the party here after my latest post?

Martin calls, Draka comes!

I have nearly finished that book now by the way and will be thinking of a new topic to discuss it soon.
 

Draka

Wonder Woman
why am I not surprised that you have leapt in out of the blue to join the party here after my latest post?

Martin calls, Draka comes!

I have nearly finished that book now by the way and will be thinking of a new topic to discuss it soon.

Excuse me? It wouldn't matter who made that statement, I found it strange so I addressed it. I see you don't want to address my question about it though. I've actually found some of your posts here interesting and your stances have surprised me a little, but I just couldn't let that last one just go by without asking WHY.
 

Banner

Member
Why do you think that? Why is the prostitute immoral by any degree and the john isn't? Do they not partake in the same transaction? It is the same action and it requires both of them for it to happen, so how is one immoral and one isn't?


Is he for real? I'm not here very often but he must be a troll with comments like that right?
 

McBell

Admiral Obvious
why am I not surprised that you have leapt in out of the blue to join the party here after my latest post?

Martin calls, Draka comes!

I have nearly finished that book now by the way and will be thinking of a new topic to discuss it soon.
so, are you going to explain why it is immoral for the prostitute but not for the john?
 
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