But you make no mention of this person, and you can't. Because nobody has more than quite unreliable information on the author. What you do instead is treat the author and the text as equivalent to Smith and the Book of Mormon, when
1) There is absolutely no reason to believe that the Book of Mormon would have inspired a following without the movement's leader (and everything we know about such movements tells us it wouldn't have)
2) We know how influential Smith's actions were in not only establishing the movement but in maintaining it and doing so in such a way that it still exists
3) We know that the Jesus cult existed before Mark was written and we know from a contemporary of Jesus who tells us of things this Jesus did (such as eating with his followers, being betrayed by one, etc.)
4) We have absolutely no evidence whatsoever that the author of Mark was at all influential other than as an author (i.e., he is not comparable to Smith except via a faulty and illogical analogy)
5) We have plenty of evidence that no author of any text was equivalent to Smith, because (among other things) we find two other authors using Mark and another source, a fourth set of authors (disciples of a disciple) producing another one, and all in the first century.
There is no author equivalent to Smith, and the only comparable documents to the Book of Mormon began to be written before Mark was. Also, we know that around the beginning of the first century the earliest canon we have knowledge of was formed by Marcion, who rejected all the NT except Luke and Paul. We know of a certain Papias who tells us that around this time he would try to learn from people about the Jesus tradition, not texts.
In fact, everything we know points to your analogy as completely and utterly flawed as you point to a sectarian leader who authored (according to non-Mormons) a text, founded a movement, and as both leader an sole author was able to sustain this movement. Yet you point to this while comparing it to an unknown author of a text which
sometimes formed part of a series of texts considered to be authoritative, and no leader of a movement at all. Furthermore, the earliest texts which became canonical pre-date Mark.
So we have a Jesus cult/movement before Mark (we don't with Smith), we have multiple texts including those that predate Mark (we don't with Smith), and we have no Smith (movement founder or leader).
I did understand it, but apparently the fact that I was arguing your analogy was illogical seems to have slipped past you. Hopefully the above clears that up for you.
Well, let's see. I have a background in discrete mathematics (i.e., various logic systems), I use formal languages for programming (again, logic), and I use mathematics for modelling systems among other uses (again, an extension of logic), and not only do I have a background in languages and linguistics, it was a central focus of the lab I worked at (i.e., the neural processing of concepts, words, language, etc.). So, although physics is merely a hobby (like history), the rest is not just something I have studied but something I work with in numerous ways constantly.
You, on the other hand, are a self-proclaimed scholar of the heart trained through observation. So, while it is possible that I am unable to process as you say, perhaps your belief in your own rationality is faulty. There are a number of easily readable non-technical books like
You're Not That Smart,
Predictably Irrational, and a few others I know of that you could read to understand what real researchers of human cognition have discovered about the ways in which humans are fairly consistent in the ways that we simultaneously affirm our rationality and use faulty reasoning (often to do so).
It's helpful to know these things because as we've shown, understanding
how the brain works illogically helps one to realize when one is being "predictably irrational".